Having an official doctrine that nothing is certain is not a all the same as having no presuppositions. To have a presupposition is to treat something as true (including using it methodologically) without being able to prove it. In the absence of any p=1 data, it makes sense to use your highest probability uncertain beliefs presuppositionally. It's absence of foundations (combined with a willingness to employ it, nonetheless ) that makes something presuppositional, not presence of certainty.

Treating something as true non-methodologically means making inferences from it, or using it to disprove soemethign else.

Treating something as true methodologically means using as a rule of inference.

If you have a method of showing that induction works, that method will ground out in presuppositions. If you dion't, then induction itself is a (methodological) presupposition for you.

Finally: treating moral values as arbitrary, but nonetheless something you should pursue[*], is at the farthest possible remove from showing that they are not presuppositions!

[*]Why?

None of this requires that you pretend to know more than you do.

I don't have to pretend to know whether I'm in a simulation or not. I can admit my ignorance, and then act, knowing that I do not know for certain if my actions will serve.

I think of this in levels

I can't prove that logic is true. So I don't claim to know it is with probability 1. I don't pretend to.

But, IF it is true, then my reasonings are better than nothing for understanding things.

So, my statements end up looking something like: "(IF logic works) the fact that this seems logical mean... (read more)

Open thread, Jul. 25 - Jul. 31, 2016

by MrMind 1 min read25th Jul 2016133 comments

3


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