[anonymous]8y0

Ahh, I see, I think I misunderstood you. I'm not sure I understand why A and B overlap. The claim about Planck times is that nothing can happen in less time. Does it follow from that that all time must be measured in whole numbers of Planck times? A photon takes one Planck time to pass through one Planck length, but I can't see anything problematic with a cosmic ray passing through one Planck length in 10.5 Planck times. In other words does the fact that the Planck time is a minimum mean that it's an indivisible unit?

I don't think anything in my example relies on visualizing time, or on visualizing it as a series of slices. But I may be confused there. Do you have reason to think that one cannot visualize time? I suppose I agree that time is not a visible object, and so any visualization is analogical, but isn't this true of many things we do visualize to our profit? Like economic growth, say. What makes time different?

[anonymous]8y3

The claim about Planck times is that nothing can happen in less time.

No. The claim is that nothing is located in time with a precision smaller than the planck time.

Welcome to Less Wrong! (2010-2011)

by orthonormal 1 min read12th Aug 2010805 comments

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