[anonymous]8y0

Mathematically speaking, you can say "in average it travelled for 1 Planck length in 1.5 Planck time". But physically speaking, it doesn't mean anything. Quantum mechanics works with wavefunction.

I see. But this raises again my original worry: does QM's claim about Planck times actually say anything about the continuity of time? Or just something about the theoretical structure of QM? Or just something about the greatest possible experimental precision? Does a limit on the precision of time at this level imply that these are actual indivisible and discontinuous units?

Maybe I'm just too steeped in pragmatism to notice, but it seems your question has already been answered. For example:

Does a limit on the precision of time at this level imply that these are actual indivisible and discontinuous units?

No, a limit on precision tells you that it's not meaningful to ask whether or not there are actual indivisible and discontinuous units. There's no experiment that could tell the difference.

Welcome to Less Wrong! (2010-2011)

by orthonormal 1 min read12th Aug 2010805 comments

42


This post has too many comments to show them all at once! Newcomers, please proceed in an orderly fashion to the newest welcome thread.