This is back to the original argument, and not on the definition of expected utility functions or the status of utilitiarianism in general.
PhilGoetz's argument appears to contain a contradiction similar to that which Moore discusses in Principia Ethica, where he argues that the principle egoism does not entail utilitarianism.
Egoism: X ought to do what maximizes X's happiness.
Utilitarianism: X ought to do what maximizes EVERYONE's happiness
(or put Xo for X. and X_sub_x for Everyone).
X's happiness is not logically equivalent to Everyone's happiness. The important takeway here is that because happiness is indexed to an individual person (at least as defined in the egoistic principle), each person's happiness is an independent logical term.
We have to broaden the scope of egoism slightly to include whatever concept of the utility function you use, and the discussion of possible selves. However, unless you have a pretty weird concept of self/identity, I don't see why it wouldn't work. In that situation, X's future self in all possible worlds bears a relationship to X at time 0, such that future X's happiness is independent of future Everyone's happiness.
Anyway, using Von-Neumann Morgenstern doesn't work here. There is no logical reason to believe that averaging possible states with regard to an individual's utility has any implications for averaging happiness over many different individuals.
As addendum, neither average nor total utility provides a solution to the fairness, or justice, issue (i.e. how utility is distributed among people, which at least has some common sense gravity to it). Individual utility maximization more or less does not have to deal with that issue at all (their might be some issues with time-ordering of preferences, etc., but that's not close to the same thing). That's another sign Von-Neumann Morgenstern just doesn't give an answer as to which ethical system is more rational.
There is no logical reason to believe that averaging possible states with regard to an individual's utility has any implications for averaging happiness over many different individuals.
How is it different? Aren't all of the different possible future yous different people? In both cases you are averaging utility over many different individuals. It's just that in one case, all of them are copies of you.
I said this in a comment on Real-life entropic weirdness, but it's getting off-topic there, so I'm posting it here.
My original writeup was confusing, because I used some non-standard terminology, and because I wasn't familiar with the crucial theorem. We cleared up the terminological confusion (thanks esp. to conchis and Vladimir Nesov), but the question remains. I rewrote the title yet again, and have here a restatement that I hope is clearer.
Some problems with average utilitarianism from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy:
(If you assign different weights to the utilities of different people, we could probably get the same result by considering a person with weight W to be equivalent to W copies of a person with weight 1.)