Isn't "the set of all sets" (SAS) ill-defined? Suppose we consider it to be for some set A (maybe the set of all atoms) the infinite regression of power sets SAS = P(P(P(P....(A)))...)
In which case SAS = P(SAS) by Cantor-like arguments?
And Russell's paradox goes away?
Isn't "the set of all sets" (SAS) ill-defined? Suppose we consider it to be for some set A (maybe the set of all atoms) the infinite regression of power sets SAS = P(P(P(P....(A)))...)
In which case SAS = P(SAS) by Cantor-like arguments?
And Russell's paradox goes away?