But what of the fact that any singular event, is actually a conjunction of the probabilities of that event and the negation of the alternative event, so A is really equivalent to a conjunction of A and not B. Given this can it really be said that A is more likely than A and B?
But what of the fact that any singular event, is actually a conjunction of the probabilities of that event and the negation of the alternative event, so A is really equivalent to a conjunction of A and not B. Given this can it really be said that A is more likely than A and B?