This is a discussion page because I got the message "Comment too long". Apparently the same formatting magic doesn't work here for quotes :(  It is a reply to:

http://lesswrong.com/lw/3ox/bayesianism_versus_critical_rationalism/3ulv

 

> > You can conjecture Bayes' theorem. You can also conjecture all the rest, however some things (such as induction, justificationism, foundationalism) contradict Popper's epistemology. So at least one of them has a mistake to fix. Fixing that may or may not lead to drastic changes, abandonment of the main ideas, etc

> Fully agreed. In principle, if Popper's epistemology is of the second, self-modifying type, there would be nothing wrong with drastic changes. One could argue that something like that is exactly how I arrived at my current beliefs, I wasn't born a Bayesian.

OK great.

If the changes were large enough, to important parts (for example if it lost the ability to self-modify) I wouldn't want to call it Popper's epistemology anymore (unless maybe the changes were made very gradually, with Popper's ideas being valued the whole time, and still valued at the end). It would be departing from his tradition too much, so it would be something else. A minor issue in some ways, but tradition matters.

> I can also see some ways to make induction and foundationalism easer to swallow.

> A discussion post sounds about right for this, if enough people like it you might consider moving it to the main site.

104 comments later it's at 0 karma. There is interest, but not so much liking. I don't think the main site is the right place for me ;-)

> > I think you are claiming that seeing a white swan is positive support for the assertion that all swans are white. (If not, please clarify).

> This is precisely what I am saying.

Based on what you say later, I'm not sure if you mean this in the same way I meant it. I meant: it is positive support for "all swans are white" *over* all theories which assert "all swans are black" (I disagree with that claim). If it doesn't support them *more than those other theories* then I regard it as vaccuous. I don't believe the math you offered meets this challenge over supporting "all swans are white" more than various opposites of it. I'm not sure if you intended it to.

> > If so, this gets into important issues. Popper disputed the idea of positive support. The criticism of the concept begins by considering: what is support? And in particular, what is the difference between "X supports Y" and "X is consistent with Y"?

> The beauty of Bayes is how it answers these questions. To distinguish between the two statements we express them each in terms of probabilities.

> "X is consistent with Y" is not really a Bayesian way of putting things, I can see two ways of interpreting it. One is as P(X&Y) > 0, meaning it is at least theoretically possible that both X and Y are true. The other is that P(X|Y) is reasonably large, i.e. that X is plausible if we assume Y.

Consistent means "doesn't contradict". It's the first one. Plausible is definitely not what I wanted.

> "X supports Y" means P(Y|X) > P(Y), X supports Y if and only if Y becomes more plausible when we learn of X. Bayes tells us that this is equivalent to P(X|Y) > P(X), i.e. if Y would suggest that X is more likely that we might think otherwise then X is support of Y.

This is true but fairly vaccous, in my view. I don't want to argue over what counts as significant. If you like it, shrug. It is important that, e.g., we reject ideas refuted by evidence. But I don't think this addresses the major problems in epistemology which come after we decide to reject things which are refuted by evidence.

The reason it doesn't is there's always infinitely many things supported by any evidence, in this sense. Infinitely many things which make wildly different predictions about the future, but identical predictions about whatever our evidence covers. If Y is 10 white swans, and X is "all swans are white" then X is supported, by your statement. But also supported are infinitely many different theories claiming that all swans are black, and that you hallucinated. You saw exactly what you would see if any of those theories were true, so they get as much support as anything else. There is nothing (in the concept of support) to differentiate between "all swans are white" and those other theories.

If you do add something else to differentiate, I will say the support concept is useless. The new thing does all the work. And further, the support concept is frequently abused. I have had people tell me that "all swans are black, but tomorrow you will hallucinated 10 white swans" is supported less by seeing 10 white swans tomorrow than "all swans are white" is, even though they made identical predictions (and asserted them with 100% probability, and would both have been definitely refuted by anything else). That kind of stuff is just wrong. I don't know if you think that kind of thing or not. What you said here does clearly disown it, nor advocate it. But that's the kind of thing that concerns me.

> Suppose we make X the statement "the first swan I see today is white" and Y the statement "all swans are white". P(X|Y) is very close to 1, P(X|~Y) is less than 1 so P(X|Y) > P(X), so seeing a white swan offers support for the view that all swans are white. Very, very weak support, but support nonetheless.

The problem I have is that it's not supported over infinitely many rivals. So how is that really support? It's useless. The only stuff not being supported is that which contradicts the evidence (like, literally contradicts, with no hallucination claims. e.g. a theory that predicts you will think you saw a green swan tomororw. but then you don't, just the white ones. that one is refuted). The inconsistent theories are refuted. The theories which make probabalistic predictions are partially supported. And the theories that say "screw probability, 100% every time" for all predictions get maximally supported, and between them support does not differentiate. (BTW I think it's ironic that I score better on support when I just stick 100% in front of every prediction in all theories I mention, while you score lower by putting in other numbers, and so your support concept discourages ever making predictions with under 100% confidence).

> (The above is not meant to be condescending, I apologise if you know all of it already).

It is not condescending. I think (following Popper) that explaining things is important and that nothing is obvious, and that communication is difficult enough without people refusing go over the "basics" in order to better understand each other. Of course this is a case where Popper's idea is not unique. Other people have said similar. But this idea, and others, are integrated into his epistemology closely. There's also *far more detail and precision* available, to explain *why* this stuff is true (e.g. lengthy theories about the nature of communication, also integrated into his epistemology). I don't think ideas about interpretting people's writing in kind ways, and miscommunication being a major hurdle, are so closely integrated with Bayesian approaches with are more math focussed and don't integrate so nicely with explanations.

My reply about support is basic stuff too, to my eye. But maybe not yours. I don't know. I expect not, since if it was you could have addressed it in advance. Oh well. It doesn't matter. Reply as you will. No doubt I'm also failing to address in advance something you regard as important.

> > To show they are correct. Popper's epistemology is different: ideas never have any positive support, confirmation, verification, justification, high probability, etc...

> This is a very tough bullet to bite.

Yes it is tough. Because this stuff has been integral to the Western philosophy tradition since Aristotle until Popper. That's a long time. It became common sense, intuitive, etc...

> > How do we decide which idea is better than the others? We can differentiate ideas by criticism. When we see a mistake in an idea, we criticize it (criticism = explaining a mistake/flaw). That refutes the idea. We should act on or use non-refuted ideas in preference over refuted ideas.

> One thing I don't like about this is the whole 'one strike and you're out' feel of it. It's very boolean,

Hmm. FYI that is my emphasis more than Popper's. I think it simplifies the theory a bit to regard all changes to theories as new theories. Keep in mind you can always invent a new theory with one thing changed. So the ways it matters have some limits, it's party just a terminology thing (terminolgoy has meaning, and some is better than others. Mine is chosen with Popperian considerations in mind. A lot of Popper's is chosen with considerations in mind of talking with his critics). Popper sometimes emphasized that it's important not to give up on theories too easily, but to look for ways to improve them when they are criticized. I agree with that. So, the "one strike you're out" way of expressing this is misleading, and isn't *substantially* implied in my statements (b/c of the possibility of creating new and similar theories). Other terminologies have different problems.

> the real world isn't usually so crisp. Even a correct theory will sometimes have some evidence pointing against it, and in policy debates almost every suggestion will have some kind of downside.

This is a substantive, not terminological, disagreement, I believe. I think it's one of the *advantages* of my terminology that it helped highlight this disagreement.

Note the idea that evidence "points" is the support idea.

In the Popperian scheme of things, evidence does not point. It contradicts, or it doesn't (given some interpretation and explanation, which are often more important than the evidence itself). That's it. Evidence can thus be used in criticisms, but is not itself inherently a criticism or argument.

So let me rephrase what you were saying. "Even a correct theory will sometimes have critical arguments against it".

Part of the Popperian view is that if an idea has one false aspect, it is false. There is a sense in which any flaw must be decisive. We can't just go around admitting mistakes into our ideas on purpose.

One way to explain the issue is: for each criticism, consider it. Judge if it's right or wrong. Do your best and act on the consequence. If you think the criticism is correct, you absolutely must reject the idea it criticizes. If you don't, then you can regard the theory as not having any *true* critical arguments against it, so that's fine.

When you reject an idea for having one false part, you can try to form a new theory to rescue the parts you still value. This runs into dangers of arbitrarily rescuing everything in an ad hoc way. There's two answers to that. The first is: who cares? Popperian epistemology is not about laying out rules to prevent you from thinking badly. It's about offering advice to help you think better. We don't really care very much if you find a way to game the system and do something dumb, such as making a series of 200 ad hoc and silly arguments to try to defend a theory you are attached to. All we'll do is criticize you for it. And we think that is good enough: there are criticisms of bad methodologies, but no formal rules that definitively ban them. Now the second answer, which Deutsch presents in The Fabric of Reality, is that when you modify theories you often ruin their explanation. If you don't, then the modification is OK, it's good to consider this new theory, it's worth considering. But if the explanation is ruined, that puts an end to trying to rescue it (unless you can come up with a good idea for a new way to modify it that wont' ruin the explanation).

This concept of ruining explanations is important and not simple. Reading the book would be great (it is polished! edited!) but I'll try to explain it briefly. This example is actually from his other book, _The Beginning of Infinity_ chapter 1. We'll start with a bad theory: the seasons are caused by Persephone's imprisonment, for 6 months of the year, in the underworld (via her mother Demeter's magic powers which she uses to express her emotions). This theory has a bad explanation in the first place, so it can be easily rescued when it's emprically contradicted. For example this theory predicts the seasons will be the same all over the globe, at the same time. That's false. But you can modify the theory very easily to account for the empirical data. You can say that Demeter only cares about the area where she lives. She makes it cold when Persephone is gone, and hot when she's present. The cold or hot has to go somewhere, so she puts it far away. So, the theory is saved by an ad hoc modification. It's no worse than before. Its substantive content was "Demeter's emotions and magic account for the seasons". And when the facts change, that explanation remains in tact. This is a warning against bad explanations (which can be criticized directly for being bad explanations, so there's no big problem here).

But when you have a good explanation, such as the real explanation for the seasons, based on the Earth orbitting the sun, and the axis being tilted, and so on, ad hoc modifications cause bigger problems. Suppose we found out the seasons are the same all around the world at the same time. That would refute the axis tilt theory of seasons. You could try to save it, but it's hard. If you added magic you would be ruining the axis tilt *explantion* and resorting to a very different explanation. I can't think of any way to save the axis tilt theory from the observation that the whole world has the same seasons as the same time, without contradicting or replacing its explanation. So that's why ad hoc modifications sometimes fail (for good explanatory theories only). In the cases where there is not a failure of this type -- if there is a way to keep a good explanation and still account for new data -- then that new theory is genuinely worth consideration (and if there is some thing wrong with it, you can criticize it).

> There is also the worry that there could be more than one non-refuted idea, which makes it a bit difficult to make decisions.

Yes I know. This is an important problem. I regard it as solved. For discussion of this problem, go to:

http://lesswrong.com/r/discussion/lw/551/popperian_decision_making/

> Bayesianism, on the other hand, when combined with expected utility theory, is perfect for making decisions.

Bayesianism works when you assume a bunch of stuff (e.g. some evidence), and you set up a clean example, and you choose an issue it's good at handling. I don't think it is very helpful in a lot of real world cases. Certaintly it helps in some. I regard Bayes' theorem itself as "how not to get probability wrong". That matters to a good amount of stuff. But hard real world scenarios usually have rival explanations of the proper interpretation of the available evidence, they have fallible evidence that is in doubt, they have often many different arguments that are hard to assign any numbers to, and so on. Using solomonoff induction is assign numbers, for example, doesn't work in practice as far as i know (e.g. people don't actually compute the numbers for dozens of political arugments using it). Another assumption being made is *what is a desirable (high utility) outcome* -- Bayesianism doesn't help you figure that out, it just lets you assume it (I see that as entrenching bias and subjectivism in reagards to morality -- we *can* make objective criticisms of moral values).

 

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At this point, I have to conclude that you just plain don't understand Bayesian epistemology well enough to criticize it. I also suspect that you have become too strongly opinionated on this topic to be able to learn, at least until you get some distance.

The principle difference between Bayesian and Popperian epistemology is that Bayesianism is precise; it puts all necessary ambiguity in the prior, and assumes only noncontroversial, well-tested mathematical mathematical axioms, and everything thereafter is deductively sound math. In Popper, the ambiguity (which is still necessary) is in the definitions and spreads through the whole system, making its predictions much less concrete and thus making it hard to falsify.

To make progress in epistemology beyond Popper, you must switch from English to math. It takes a lot of work and a lot of time to rebuild a fuzzy English understanding of epistemology as a precise math understanding, but you will find that the precise math reproduces the same predictions, and many more predictions that the fuzzy English could never have made.

9[anonymous]13y
I think you're overselling it. Here are two big weaknesses of Bayesian epistemology as I understand it: 1. it cannot handle uncertainty about unproved mathematical truths. 2. It does not describe the way any existing intelligence actually operates, or even could operate in principle. (That last clause is the problem of writing an AI.) I have never seen on this website any argument resolved or even approached on semirigorous Bayesian lines, except a couple of not-so-successful times between Yudkowsky and Hanson. Popper, or the second-hand accounts of him that I understand, seems to describe the way that I (and I think you!) actually think about things: we collect a big database of explanations and of criticisms of those explanations, and we decide the merits of those explanations and criticisms using our messy judgement. In cases that satisfy some mild assumptions (but not so mild as to handle the important problem 1.!) this might be equivalent to Bayesianism. But equivalences go both ways, and Popper seems to be what we actually practice -- what's the problem?
1timtyler13y
Why do you think that? Solomonoff induction is uncomputable? So: use a computable approximation.
7curi13y
What is the argument that the approximation you use is good? What I mean is, when you approximate you are making changes. Some possible changes you could make would create massive errors. Others -- the type you are aiming for -- only create small errors that don't spread all over. What is your method of creating an approximation of the second type?
1timtyler13y
Making computable approximations of Solomonoff induction is a challenging field which it seems inappropriate to try and cram into a blog comment. Probably the short answer is "by using stochastic testing".
0JoshuaZ13y
There's a large amount of math behind this sort of thing, and frankly, given your other comments I'm not sure that you have enough background. It might help to just read up on Bayeisian machine learning which needs to deal with just this sort of issue. Then keep in mind that there are theorems that given some fairly weak conditions to rule out pathological cases one approximate any distribution by a computable distribution to arbitrary accuracy. You need to be careful about what metric you are using but it turns out to be true for a variety of different notions of approximating and different metrics. While this is far from my area of expertise, so I'm by no means an expert on this, my impression is that the theorems are essentially of the same flavor as the theorems one would see in a real analysis course about approximating functions with continuous functions or polynomial functions.
4[anonymous]13y
If you think I'm mistaken, please say so and elaborate. It's hard for me to believe that you haven't thought of this, but it's difficult to "approximate" an uncomputable function. Think of any enormous computable function f(n) you like. Any putative "approximation" of the busy beaver function is off by a factor larger than f(n). I bet Solomonoff is similarly impossible to approximate -- am I wrong?
2timtyler13y
I am not aware of any particular issues regarding Bayesian epistemology handling uncertainty about unproved mathematical truths. How is that different from other cases where there is uncertainty? Using a computable approximation of Solomonoff induction is a standard approach. If you don't have a perfect compressor, you just use the best one you have. It is the same with Solomonoff induction.
0[anonymous]13y
I outlined the problem with mathematical uncertainty here. The only reason I believe that this is an open problem is on Yudkowsky's say-so in his reply. Standard approach to what? I don't know what a "compressor" or "perfect compressor" is, if those are technical terms. To me, the question is whether an approximation to Solomonoff induction has approximately the same behavior as Solomonoff induction. I think it can't, for instance because no approximation of the busy beaver function (even the "best compressor you have") behaves anything like the busy beaver function. If you think this is a misleading way of looking at it please tell me.
1JoshuaZ13y
Solomonoff induction can't handle the Busy Beaver function because Busy Beaver is non-computable. So it isn't an issue for approximations of Solomonoff (except in so far as they can't handle it either).
0[anonymous]13y
I am not saying that "Solomonoff can't handle Busy Beaver." (I'm not even sure I know what you mean.) I am saying that Solomonoff is analogous to Busy Beaver, for instance because they are both noncomputable functions. Busy Beaver is non-approximatable in a strong sense, and so I think that Solomonoff might also be non-approximatable in an equally strong sense.
0timtyler13y
Kolmogorov complexity is uncomputable, but you can usefully approximate Kolmogorov complexity for many applications using PKZIP. The same goes for Solomonoff induction. Its prior is based on Kolmogorov complexity.
0timtyler13y
Don't agree with the premise there. As to what Yudkowsky is talking about by saying "Logical uncertainty is an open problem" - it beats me. There's really only uncertainty. Uncertainty about mathematics is much the same as other kinds of uncertainty.
0[anonymous]13y
What premise?
0timtyler13y
The first 5 lines of the post - this bit::
0[anonymous]13y
I can prove that to you, unless I made a mistake. Are you saying you can defeat it a priori by telling me a prior that doesn't have any of those three properties?
0timtyler13y
Take induction, for example, where the domain of the function P(X) ranges over the possible symbols that might come next in the stream (or, if you prefer, ranges over the hypotheses that predict them). Then P(X and Y) is typically not a meaningful concept.
0[anonymous]13y
The trichotomy is: Taken literally, your P falls for 1. For instance it doesn't have an opinion about whether it will be sunny tomorrow or the Riemann hypothesis is true. If you wish avoid this problem by encoding the universe as a string of symbols to feed to your induction machine, why wouldn't you let me encode "X and Y" at the same time?
0komponisto13y
Why not? You just use an appropriate formalization of mathematics, and treat it as uncertainty about the behavior of a proof-searching machine. I can think of at least one concrete example. But I'm guessing you were familiar with that example (and numerous other smaller-scale ones) and rejected it, so you must mean something different than I do by "argument approached on semirigorous Bayesian lines". Perhaps there isn't any, except insofar as the poster is claiming that Bayes is wrong because it isn't Popper.
0JoshuaZ13y
Unfortunately this isn't helpful. Consider for example a Turing machine that seems to halt on all inputs, and we know that when this one halts it halts with either a 0 or a 1. Does this machine represent a computable sequence (hence should have non-zero probability assigned if one is using a Solomonoff prior)? If we haven't resolved that question we don't know. But in order to use any form of prior over computable sequences we need to assume that we have access to what actually represents a computable hypothesis and what doesn't. There are other problems as well.
0komponisto13y
I'm having trouble parsing your third (I don't know what it means for a Turing machine to [fail to] "represent a computable sequence", especially since I thought that a "computable sequence" was by definition the output of a Turning machine) and fourth (we don't know what?) sentences, but if your general point is what I think it is ("after formalizing logical uncertainty, we'll still have meta-logical uncertainty left unformalized!"), that's simply a mathematical fact, and not an argument against the possibility of formalizing logical uncertainty in the first place.
1JoshuaZ13y
A sequence f(n) is computable if there's a Turing machine T that given input n halts with output f(n). But, not all Turing machines halt on all inputs. It isn't hard to make Turing machines that go into trivial infinite loops, and what is worse, Turing machines can fail to halt in much more ugly and non-obvious ways to the point where the question "Does the Turing machine M halt on input n" is not in general decidable. This is known at the Halting theorem. So if I'm using some form of Solomonoff prior I can't even in general tell whether a machine describes a point in my hypothesis space.
0komponisto13y
What I don't understand is your argument that there is a specific problem with logical uncertainty that doesn't apply to implementing Solomonoff induction in general. Yes, the halting problem is undecidable, so you can't decide if a sequence is computable; but assuming you've already got a Solomonoff-induction machine that can say "my probability that it will rain tomorrow is 50%", why can't it also say "my probability that the Riemann Hypothesis is true is 50%"?
1JoshuaZ13y
That's actually a really good example. It isn't that difficult to make a Turing machine that halts if and only if the Riemann hypothesis is true. So a system using Solomonoff induction has to recognize for starters whether or not that Turing machine halts. Essentially, in the standard version of Solomonoff induction, you need to assume that you have access to indefinitely large computing power. You can try making models about what happens when you have limited computational power in your entity (In some sense AIXI implementations and implementations of Bayesian reasoning need to do close to this). But if one doesn't assume that one has indefinite computing power then a lot of the results about how different priors behave no longer hold (or at least the proofs don't obviously go through). For more detail on that sort of thing I'd recommend talking to cousin_it or jimrandomh since they've thought and know a lot more about these issues than I do.
0komponisto13y
Only in the sense that a human trying to solve the Riemann Hypothesis also has to recognize whether the same Turing machine halts. When I talk about "going meta", I really mean it: when the Solomonoff machine that I have in mind is considering "whether this sequence is computable" or "whether the Riemann Hypothesis is true" or more generally "whether this Turing machine halts", it is going to be doing so the same way a human does: by using a model of the mathematical object in question that isn't actually equivalent to that same mathematical object. It won't be answering the question "natively", the way a computer typically adds 3+5 (i.e. by specific addition algorithms built into it); instead, it will be more closely analogous to a computer being programmed to simulate three apples being combined with five apples on its display screen, and then count the apples by recognizing their visual representation. So the upshot is that to be able to give an answer the question "what is your probability that this Turing machine halts?", the Solomonoff AI does not need to solve anything equivalent to the halting problem. It just needs to examine the properties of some internal model corresponding to the label "Turing machine", which need not be an actual Turing machine. It is in this way that uncertainty about mathematical truths is handled. It should go without saying that this isn't directly of use in building such an AI, because it doesn't tell you anything about how to construct the low-level algorithms that actually run it. But this thread isn't about how to build a Bayesian AI; rather, it's about whether a Bayesian AI is something that it makes sense to build. And my point here is that "Well, if you had a Bayesian AI, it wouldn't be able to give you probability estimates concerning the truth of mathematical statements" is not a valid argument on the latter question.
0[anonymous]13y
By "Solomonoff AI" do you mean "some computable approximation of a Solomonoff AI"? My impression is that the Solomonoff prior just does solve the halting problem, and that this is a standard proof that it is uncomputable. Humans are bad at this. Is there some reason to think that a "the Solomonoff machine you have in mind" will be better at it?
0komponisto13y
The programmer would need to have solved the halting problem in order to program the Solomonoff prior into the AI, but the AI itself would not be solving the halting problem. It may or may not be (though hopefully it would be more intelligent than humans -- that's the point after all!); it doesn't matter for the purpose of this argument.
0[anonymous]13y
This strikes me as a confused way of looking at things. As you know, it's a theorem that the halting problem is unsolvable in a technical sense. That theorem expresses a limitation on computer programs, not computer programmers.
0khafra13y
My thinking seems to me more qualitatively bayesian than popperian. I don't have a good enough memory to keep all the criticisms I've ever heard of each theory I provisionally accept in mind. Instead, when I encounter a criticism that seems worth considering, I decrease my belief in the theory by an amount corresponding to the strenghth of the criticism. If I then go on to find evidence that weakens the criticism, strengthens the original theory, or weakens all possible alternate theories, I increase my belief in the original theory again.
-1curi13y
You raise an interesting issue which is: what is the strength of a criticism? How is that determined? For example, your post is itself a criticism of Popperian epistemology. What is the strength of your post? By not using strengths of arguments, I don't have this problem. Strengths of arguments remind me of proportional representation voting where every side gets a say. PR voting makes a mess of things, not just in practice but also in terms of rigorous math (e.g. Arrow's Theorem)
2Sniffnoy13y
What does Arrow's theorem have to do with proportional representation? Arrow's theorem deals with single-winner ordinal voting systems. Is there some generalization that covers proportional representation as well?
-3curi13y
For one thing, all elections have a single overall outcome that wins.
2Sniffnoy13y
Indeed, but "single-winner" has a technical meaning here that's rather more restrictive than that. Unless each voter could choose their vote aribitrarily from among the set of those overall outcomes, it's not single-winner.
-9curi13y
1JoshuaZ13y
Do you intend to treat all criticism equally?
-2[anonymous]13y
I'm suspicious of the notion of "increasing" and "decreasing" a belief. Did you pick those words exactly because you didn't want to use the word "updating"? Why not? My guess is that having a bad memory is as much a disadvantage for Bayesians as for Popperians.
4khafra13y
I'm suspicious of your suspicion. Is it purely because of the terms I used, or do you really have no beliefs you hold more tenuously than others? If I ask you whether the sun rose this morning, will you examine a series of criticisms of that idea for validity and strength? If I ask you whether it's dangerous to swim after a heavy meal, you'll probably check snopes to verify your suspicion that it's an old wives' tale, and possibly check any sources cited at snopes. But will you really store the details of all those arguments in your memory as metadata next to "danger of swimming after a heavy meal," or just mark it as "almost certainly not dangerous"?
4curi13y
To save on storage, learn powerful explanations. Sometimes ideas can be integrated into better ideas that elegantly cover a lot of ground. Finding connections between fields is an important part of learning. Learning easy to remember rules of thumb -- and improving them with criticism when they cause problems -- is also valuable for some applications.
1[anonymous]13y
I don't think the shortcuts I take on easy questions are very demonstrative of anything. I know what it means to think an outcome is likely or not likely. I don't know what it means for a belief to be tenuous or not tenuous.
6David_Gerard13y
LessWrong is seriously lacking a proper explanation of Bayesian epistemology (as opposed to the theorem itself). Do you have one handy?
0timtyler13y
http://yudkowsky.net/rational/bayes has a section on Bayesian epistemology that compares it to Popper's ideas. Bayesian epistemology boils down to: use probabilities to represent your confidence in your beliefs, use Bayes's theorem to update your confidences - and try to choose a sensible prior.
2curi13y
Of course I've read that. It first of all is focussed on Bayes' theorem without a ton of epistemology. It second of all does not discuss Popper's ideas but only nasty myths about them. See the original post here: http://lesswrong.com/lw/54u/bayesian_epistemology_vs_popper/
-5[anonymous]13y
1curi13y
What you should do is say specifically what I got wrong (just one thing is fine). Then you'll be making a substantive statement! What predictions? It is a philosophical theory. Your conception of epistemology is different than ours. We seek things like explanations that help us to understand the world.
4jimrandomh13y
Ok, here's one. You criticize Bayesian updating for invoking infinitely many hypotheses, as a fundamental problem. In fact, the problem of infinite sets is an issue, but it's resolved in Jaynes' book by a set of rules in which one never deals with infinities directly, but rather with convergent limiting expressions, which are mathematically well-behaved in ways that infinities aren't. This ensures, among other things, that any set of hypotheses (whether finite or infinite) has only finite total plausibility, and lets us compute plausibilities for whole sets at once (ideally, picking out one element and giving it a high probability, and assigning a low total probability to the infinitely many other hypotheses). Both theories make predictions about the validity of models using evidence - that is, they predict whether future observations will agree with the model. No, our conceptions of epistemology are the same. Math does help us understand the world, in ways that natural language can't.
-4curi13y
No, I didn't say that. I invoked them, because they matter. You then claims Jaynes' deals with the problem. Yet Yudkowsky concedes it is a problem. I don't think you understood me, rather than vice versa. Popper never made a prediction like that. And this rather misses some points. Some models for using evidence (e.g. induction) are literally incapable of making predictions (therefore people who do make predictions must be doing something else). Here Popper was not making a prediction, and also was pointing out prediction isn't the right way to judge some theories. Can you write philosophical explanations in math? Of course math helps for some stuff, but not everything.
3jimrandomh13y
Here's where you've really gone astray. You're trying to figure out math by reading what people are saying about it. That doesn't work. In order to understand math, you have to look at the math itself. I'm not sure what statement by Yudkowsky you're referring to, but I'll bet it was something subtly different. Uh, wait a second. Did you really just say that Popper doesn't provide a method for using evidence to decide whether models are valid? There must be some sort of misunderstanding here.
2timtyler13y
I am pretty sure it was this one - where: Yudkowsky goes loopy.
-3curi13y
The only way evidence is used is that criticisms may refer to it. I'm not trying to figure out math, I'm trying to discuss the philosophical issues.
3JoshuaZ13y
Please reread what Jim wrote. You seem to be in agreement with his statement that evidence is used. Unfortunately, they are interrelated. There's a general pattern here: some people (such as Jaynes and Yudkowsky) are using math as part of their philosophy. In the process of that they are making natural language summaries and interpretations of those claims. You are taking those natural language statements as if that was all they had to say and then trying to apply your intuition of on ill-defined natural language statements rather than read those natural language statements in the context of the formalisms and math they care about. You can't divorce the math from the philosophy.
[-][anonymous]13y70

I want to emphasize this line from the long op, which I think is curi's best argument:

Hard real world scenarios usually have rival explanations of the proper interpretation of available evidence, they have fallible evidence that is in doubt, they have often many different arguments that are hard to assign any numbers to, and so on.

Therefore Bayesianism does not describe the way that we actually find out true things. I think this is a pretty compelling criticism of Bayes, does anyone have a stock answer?

4timtyler13y
It isn't a theory about human psychology in the first place.
-1curi13y
Epistemologies are theories about how knowledge is created. Humans create knowledge. If you want to be an epistemology, address the problem of how they do it.
1timtyler13y
Humans do all kinds of things badly. They are becoming obsolete. For a neater perspective that is more likely to stand the test of time, it is better to consider how machines create knowledge.
2komponisto13y
Firstly, "the way we actually do X is by Y" is never a valid criticism of a theory saying "the way we should do X is by Z". (Contemporary philosophers are extremely fond of this mistake, it must be said.) If we're not using Bayes, then maybe we're doing it wrong. Secondly, that the fact that we don't consciously think in terms of numbers doesn't mean that our brains aren't running Bayes-like algorithms on a low level not accessible to conscious introspection.
2JoshuaZ13y
Failure to perform correctly on the Monty Hall problem is cross-cultural. I haven't seen the literature in any detail but my impression is that the conjunction fallacy is also nearly universal. Whatever humans are doing it isn't very close to Bayes.
3komponisto13y
Emphasis on low-level. Thinking "hmm, the probability of this outcome is 1/3" is high-level, conscious cognition. The sense in which we're "Bayesians" is like the sense in which we're good at calculus: catching balls, not (necessarily) passing written tests. The conjunction fallacy is a closer to being a legitimate counterargument, but I would remind you that "Bayes-like" does not preclude the possibility of deviations from Bayes. Perhaps some general perspective would be helpful. My point of view is that "inference = Bayes" is basically an analytic truth. That is, "Bayesian updating" is the mathematically precise notion that best corresponds to the vague, confused human idea of "inference". The latter turns out to mean Bayesian updating in the same sense that our intuitive idea of "connectedness" turns out to mean this. As such, we can make our discourse strictly more informative by replacing talk of "inference" with talk of "Bayesian updating" throughout. We can talk about Bayesian updating done correctly, and done incorrectly. For example, instead of saying "humans don't update according to Bayes", we should rather say, "humans are inconsistent in their probability assignments".
-5curi13y
0curi13y
I actually don't agree with this. Those problems are caused by memes, not hardware. Cross cultural is caused by the logic of the situation different early cultures were being in, and what mistakes are easy to make, being similar.
3JoshuaZ13y
How would you test this claim? (Note by the way that in the case of Monty Hall, the percentages don't change much from culture to culture. It is consistently between 75-90% refusing to switch in all tested cultures. This is actually one of the things that convinced me that this isn't memetic. )
0[anonymous]13y
Let me go further. The way people with a good track record of finding out true things (for instance, komponisto) actually go about finding out true things is by collecting explanations and criticisms of those explanations, not by computing priors and posteriors. What would it mean to be doing it wrong? I can only think of: believing a lot of false things. So tell me some false things that I could come to believe by Popperian methods, that I wouldn't come to believe by Bayesian methods, or even better show me that the converse happens much more rarely. Sure. For instance there's good evidence that our brains judge what color something is by a Bayesian process. But why should I take advice about epistemology from such an algorithm?

Damn, I had a reply but it took so long to type that I lost internet connection.

Basically, with your point about supporting infinitely many theories, I refer you back to my comment that started this whole discussion.

As for the 'one strike and you're out' approach to criticism, I have three big problems with it:

The first is that if 'I don't understand' counts as a criticism, and you have claimed it does, then we need to reject every scientific theory we currently have since someone, somewhere, doesn't understand it.

Second, you accused Jaynes and Yudkowsky o... (read more)

0curi13y
Sort of. It's not perfect. As far as scientific progress, it should be improved on. Indefinitely. In the mean time we have to make decisions. For making decisions, we never directly use canonical scientific theories. Instead, you make a conjecture like, "QM isn't perfect. But I can use it for building this space ship, and my spaceship will fly". This conjecture is itself open to criticism. It could be a bad idea, depending on the details of the scenario. But it is not open to criticism by some guy in Africa not understanding QM, which doesn't matter. That's not what they said. Check out the actual quotes, e.g. Yudkowsky said "Karl Popper's idea that theories can be definitely falsified". That is not Popper's idea. Ideas cannot be "definitely falsified" but only fallibly/conjecturally/tentatively falsified. That's a merit! Well, it does leave room for them as ideas which you might remember and try to improve on later. I would conjecture an explanation of when to stop and why. It would depend on what my goal was with the coin flipping. If that explanation wasn't refuted by criticism, I would use it. For example, I might be flipping coins to choose which to use for the coin flipping olympics. my goal might be to keep my job. So I might stop after 5 flips all the same and just move on to the next coin. That would work fine for my purposes.
2benelliott13y
This, kind of feels like cheating. You use all its predictions but never give it credit for making them. Besides, are you really suggesting that 'someone doesn't understand this' is a legitimate criticism. If this was correct it would mean that scientific truth is partly dependant on human minds, and that the laws of physics themselves change with our understanding of them. Yudkowsky doesn't use 'definitely' to mean 'with certainty'. No its not! Weak criticisms are important, because they add up to strong ones and sometimes they are all we have to decide by. You're moving the goal posts. I wasn't asking what you would do in pragmatic terms, I was asking at which point would you consider the theory refuted. You have claimed your thinking process is based on examining criticisms and refuting theories when they are valid, so when is it valid?
1curi13y
I don't know what you mean by "give credit". I'm happy to hand out all sorts of credit. If I don't have a criticism of using all QMs predictions, then I'll use them. That someone doesn't understand QM isn't a criticism of this. That's only a criticism of explanations of QM. It would mean that what ideas are valuable is partly dependent on what people exist to care about them. What does it mean? He shouldn't write stuff that, using the dictionary definitions, is a myth about Popper, and not clarify. Even if you're right he isn't excused. I think they can't and don't. I think this is a big like saying 3 wrong answers add up to a right answer. If an argument is false, why should it count for anything? Why would you ever want a large number of false arguments (false as best you can judge them) to trump one true argument (true as best you judge it)? I would tentatively, fallibly consider the theory "it is a fair coin" refuted after, say, 20 flips. Why 20? I conjectured 20 and don't have a criticism of it. For coin flipping in particular, if I had any rigorous needs, I would use some math in accordance with them.
3benelliott13y
Be careful with arguing that an idea's value is a different thing to its truth, you're starting to sound like an apologist. If those explanations are helpful to some people they shouldn't be rejected simply because they are not helpful to others. After all, without them we would never have the predictions. I don't know about the dictionary definitions, but in everyday conversation 'definitely' doesn't mean 'with certainty'. As Wittgenstein pointed out, these words are frequently used in contexts where the speaker might be wrong for dozens of reasons, and knows it. For instance, "I definitely left my keys by the microwave" is frequently false, and is generally only said by people who are feeling uncertain about it. I conjecture 21, you don't have any criticism of that either. I now have a criticism of 20, which is that it fails to explain why my conjecture is wrong. A weak criticism is not the same as an invalid criticism. It just means a criticism that slightly erodes a position, without single-handedly bringing the whole thing crashing down. The coin-flip thing was intended as an example.
1curi13y
You are taking rejection as a bigger deal than it is. The theory that "X is the perfect explanation" for X that confuses some people is false. So we reject it. We can accept other theories, e.g. that X is flawed but, for some particular purpose, is appropriate to use. It means "without doubt". Saying things like "I have no doubt that X" when there is doubt is just dumb. The problem situation is under specified. When you ask ambiguous questions like what should I do in [under specified situation] then you get multiple possible answers and it's hard to do much in the way of criticizing. In real world situations (which have rich context), it's not so hard to decide. But when I gave an example like that you objected. I can't criticize 20 vs 21 unless I have some goal in mind, some problem we are trying to solve. (If there is no problem to be solved, I won't flip at all.) If the problem is figuring out if the coin is fair, with certainty, that is not solvable, so I won't flip at all. If it is figuring it out with a particular probability, given a few reasonable background assumptions, then I will look up the right math to use. If it's something else, what? This is an important issue. I think your statement here is imprecise. A criticism might demolish one single idea which is part of a bigger idea. If it demolishes zero individual ideas, then where is the erosion? If it demolishes one little idea, then that idea is refuted. And the big idea needs to replace it with something else which is not refuted, or find a way to do without.
3benelliott13y
Maybe QM is exactly right, and maybe it is just too complicated for some people to understand. There is no need to be so harsh in your criticism process, why not just admit that a theory can be right without being perfect in every other respect. Yet everyone does it. Language is a convention, not a science. If you are using a word differently from everyone else then you are wrong, the dictionary has no authority on the matter. This is a flaw. Bayes can handle any level of information. Can you really not see why the above is moving the goal posts. Earlier, you said that you think by coming up with conjectures, and criticising them, and only then make decisions. Now you are putting the decision making process in the driving seat and saying that everything is based on that. So is Popperianism purely pragmatic? Is the whole conjecture and criticism thing not really the important part, and in fact its all based on decision strategies. Or do you use the conjecture-criticism thing to try and reach the correct answer, as you have previously stated, and then use that for decision making. It makes the idea less likely, less plausible, by a small amount. The coin flip is intended to illustrate it. Saying that you will use Bayes in the coin flip example and nowhere else is like saying you believe Newton's laws work 'inside the laboratory' but you're going to keep using Aristotle outside.
0GuySrinivasan13y
Following curi's steps, we'd lower our standards. How do you feel about the theory "I don't want to spend more time on this and getting 1000 heads if it's double-headed is 2^1000 more likely than getting 1000 heads if it's ordinary so I'll make the same decisions I'd make if I knew it were double-headed unless I get a rough estimate of at least a factor of 2^990 difference in how much I care about the outcome of one of those decisions".
2benelliott13y
What you appear to be suggesting amounts to Bayesian epistemology done wrong.
2curi13y
For coin flipping analysis, use Bayes' theorem (not Bayesian epistemology).
2benelliott13y
If Bayes generates the right answer here, whereas naive Popperian reasoning without it goes spectacularly wrong, maybe this should be suggesting something. Also it ignores my main point that Poppers theory does not admit weak criticisms, of which the coin coming up heads is just one example.
0timtyler13y
Whether you have a double-headed coin or not is still a form of knowledge. The Bayes' theorem:good, Bayesian epistemology:bad perspecitive won't wash.

Neither the potential infinity of theories, nor the possibility of error favour Popper over Bayes.

"The reason it doesn't is there's always infinitely many things supported by any evidence, in this sense. Infinitely many things which make wildly different predictions about the future, but identical predictions about whatever our evidence covers. If Y is 10 white swans, and X is "all swans are white" then X is supported, by your statement. But also supported are infinitely many different theories claiming that all swans are black, and that you... (read more)

[-][anonymous]13y20

"I see that as entrenching bias and subjectivism in reagards to morality -- we can make objective criticisms of moral values."

You keep asserting that. You keep failing to provide a shred of evidence.

"BTW I think it's ironic that I score better on support when I just stick 100% in front of every prediction in all theories I mention, while you score lower by putting in other numbers, and so your support concept discourages ever making predictions with under 100% confidence"

That's true right up until you see the first black swan. All else... (read more)

2curi13y
I posted arguments. What did you not like about them? Post a criticism of something I said. "No evidence" is just a request for justification which I regard as impossible, but I did give arguments. At which point infinitely many of my 100% theories will be refuted. And infinitely many will remain. You can never win at that game using finite evidence. For any finite set of evidence, infinitely many 100% type theories predict all of it perfectly.
5[anonymous]13y
What arguments? I had a look through what you've written, and found this "There are objective facts about how to live, call them what you will. Or, maybe you'll say there aren't. If there are, then it's not objectively wrong to be a mass murderer. Do you really want to go there into full blown relativism and subjectivism?" This is hardly an argument for the truth content of a statement. Just because the consequences of a theory of moral behaviour make us feel bad doesn't mean they are not true- we should be interested in whether the statements conflict with how the universe seems to work. The notion of morality independent to sentient beings has always seemed fundamentally absurd to me, and I have yet to find a decent argument in its favour. The worry of slipping into moral relativism is that we are trapped in a position where we can't punish mass murderers. But theres lots of sensible reasons for mass murderers to punish mass murder, and not indulge in it themselves. One would have to get exceptional utility out of murdering to counteract all the downsides with performing such an action. The problem here is, as often happens with moral discussion, that wrong is not well defined. You say wrong to mean a grand moral force of the universe, but it could mean "is this a sensible action for this being to take, given their goals and desires". It might turn out that given all that said person IS benefited most by mass murder
2curi13y
As I recall I gave a citation where to find Popper discussing morality (it is The World of Parmenides). And I explained that moral knowledge is created using the same method as any other kind of knowledge. And i said that that method is (conjectures and refutations). questioning if people want to advocate strong relativism or subjectivism is an argument, too. if you aren't aware of the already existing arguments against relativism or subjectivism, then it's incomplete for you. you could always ask. you haven't understood my view. i didn't say it's a moral force. the issue of "what is the right action, given my goals and desires?" is 100% objective, and it is a moral issue. i don't know why you expected me to disagree about that. there is a fact of the matter about it. that is one of the major parts of morality. but there is also a second part: the issue of what are good goals and desires to have? how can that be objective, you wonder? well for example some sets of goals contradict each other. that allows for a type of objective moral argument, about what goals/values/preferences/utility-functions to have, against contradictory goals. there's others. to start with, read: http://www.curi.us/1169-morality
7benelliott13y
Bayes, combined with Von Neuman Mortenson utility theory answers this, at least in principle. You keep acting as if it is a flaw that Bayes only predicts. Is it a flaw that Newton's laws of motion do not explain the price of gold? Narrowness is a virtue, attempting to spread your theory as wide as possible ends up forcing it into places where it doesn't belong.
0curi13y
If bayes wants to be an epistemology then it must do more than predict. Same for Newton. If you want to have math which doesn't dethrone Popper, but is orthogonal, you're welcome to do that and i'd stop complaining (much). However Yudkowsky says Bayesian Epistemology dethrones and replaces Popper. He regards it as a rival theory to Popper's. Do you think Yudkowsky was wrong about that?
2timtyler13y
It replaces Popperian epistemology where their domains overlap - namely: building models from observations and using them to predict the future. It won't alone tell you what experiments to perform in order to gather more data - there are other puzzle pieces for dealing with that.
0curi13y
There's no overlap there b/c Popperian epistemology doesn't provide the specific details of how to do that. Popperian epistemology is fully compatible with, and can use, Bayes' theorem and any other pure math or logic insights. Popperian epistemology contradicts your "other puzzle pieces". And without them, Bayes' theorem alone isn't epistemology.
3timtyler13y
Except for the advice on induction? Or has induction merely been rechristened as corroboration? Popper enthusiasts usually seem to deny doing that.
0curi13y
Induction doesn't work. I thought you were referring to things you can do with Bayes' theorem and some input. If you meant something more, provide the details of what you are proposing.
2timtyler13y
Building models from observations and using them to predict the future is what Solomonoff induction does. It is Occam's razor plus Bayes's theorem.
2benelliott13y
The most common point of Popper's philosophy that I hear (including from my Popperian philosophy teacher) is the whole "black swan white swan" thing, which Bayes does directly contradict, and dethrone (though personally I'm not a big fan of that terminology). The stuff you talked about with conjectures and criticisms does not directly contradict Bayes and if the serious problems with 'one strike and you're out' criticisms are fixed it I may be persuaded to accept both it and Bayes. Bayes is not meant to be an epistemology all on its own. It only starts becoming one when you put it together with Solomonoff Induction, Expected Utility Theory, Cognitive Science and probably a few other pieces of the puzzle that haven't been found yet. I presume the reason it is referred to as Bayesian rather than Solomonoffian or anything else is that Bayes is the both most frequently used and the oldest part.
1curi13y
The black swan thing is not that important to Popper's ideas, it is merely a criticism of some of Popper's opponents. How does Bayes dethrone it? By asserting that white swans support "all swans are white"? I've addressed that at length (still going through overnight replies, if someone answered my points i'll try to find it). Well I don't have a problem with Bayes' theorem itself, of course (pretty much no one does, right? i hope not lol). It's these surrounding ideas that make an epistemology that I think are mistaken, and all of which Popper's epistemology contradicts. (I mean the take on cognitive science popular here, not the idea of doing cognitive science).
2benelliott13y
I think I answered your points a few days ago with my first comment of this discussion. In short, yes, there are infinitely many hypotheses whose probabilities are raised by the white swan, and yes those include both "all swans are white" and "all swans are black and I am hallucinating" but the former has a higher prior, at least for me, so it remains more probable by several orders of magnitude. For evidence to support X it doesn't have to only support X. All that is required is that X does better at predicting than the weighted average of all alternatives. Just to be clear I am happy to say those people were completely wrong. It would be nice if nobody ever invented a poor argument to defend a good conclusion but sadly we do not live in that world.
0curi13y
But then I answered your answer, right? If I missed one that isn't pretty new, let me know. so support is vacuous and priors do all the real work. right? and priors have their own problems (why that prior?). OK. I think your conception of support is unsubstantive but not technically wrong.
0benelliott13y
No. Bayesian updating is doing the job of distinguishing "all swans are white" from "all swans are black" and "all swans are green" and "swans come in a equal mixture of different colours". It is only a minority of hypothesis which are specifically crafted to give the same predictions as "all swans are white" where posterior probabilities remain equal to priors. What is it with you! I admit that priors are useful in one situation and you conclude that everything else is useless! Also, the problem of priors is overstated. Given any prior at all, the probability of eventually converging to the correct hypothesis, or at any rate a hypothesis which gives exactly the same predictions as the correct one, is 1. Bayes cannot distinguish between two theories that assign exactly the same probabilities to everything, but I don't see how you could distinguish them, without just making sh*t up, and it doesn't matter much anyway since all my decisions will be correct whichever is true.
0curi13y
But that is pretty simple logic. Bayes' not needed. @priors -- are you saying you use self-modifying priors? That makes it highly incomplete, in my view. e.g. it makes it unable to address philosophy at all. By considering their explanations. The predictions of a theory are not its entire content. that's one of the major problems popper addressing (reconciling fallibilism and non-justification with objective knowledge and truth) It does matter, given that you aren't perfect. How badly things start breaking when mistakes are made depends on issues other than what theories predict -- it depends on their explanations, internal structure, etc...
2benelliott13y
No, I'm pretty sure that if I theory A and theory B generate the same predictions then things will go exactly as well or badly for me whichever is true. One could say that this is how to work out priors. You are aware that the priors aren't necessarily set in stone at the beginning of time? Jaynes pointed out that a prior should always include all the information you have that is not explicitly part of the data (and even the distinction between prior and data is just a convention), and may well be based on insights or evidence encountered at any time, even after the data was collected. Solomonoff Induction is precisely designed to consider explanations. The difference is it does so in a rigorous mathematical fashion rather than with a wishy-washy word salad. It was designed to address science, which is a more important job anyway. However, in my experience, the majority of philosophical questions are empirically addressable, at least in principle, and the majority of the rest are wrong questions.
1curi13y
No! OK would you agree that this is an important point of disagreement, and an interesting discussion topic, to focus on? Do you want to know why not? Do you have any particular argument that I can't be right about this? Or are you just making a wild guess? Are you open to being wrong about this? Would you be impressed if there was a theory which explained this issue? Intrigued to learn more about the philosophy from which I learned this concept?
2benelliott13y
I cannot see how I could be wrong. Lets look at a Bayesian decision process. First you consider all possible actions that you could take, this is unaffected by the difference between A and B. For each of them you use your probabilities to get a distribution across all possible outcomes, these will be identical. You assign a numerical utility to each outcome based on how much you would value that outcome. If you want, I can give a method for generating these numerical utilities. These will be a mixture of terminal and instrumental values. Terminal values are independent of beliefs, so these are identical. Instrumental values depend on beliefs, but only via predictions about what an outcome will lead to in the long run, so these are identical. For each action you take an average of the values of all outcomes weighted by probability, and pick action with the highest result. This will be the same with theory A or theory B. So I do the same thing either way, and the same thing happens to me either way. Why do I care which is true?
-1curi13y
So, if you were wrong, you'd be really impressed, and want to rethink your worldview? Or did you mean you're not interested? None of the rest of what you say is relevant at all. Remember that you said, "No, I'm pretty sure that if I theory A and theory B generate the same predictions then things will go exactly as well or badly for me whichever is true." It wasn't specified that they were Bayesian decision theories. And the context was how well or badly it goes for you when we introduce mistakes into the picture (e.g. the issue is you, being fallible, make some mistakes. How resilient is your life to them?). Do you now understand the issue I'm talking about?
2benelliott13y
Notice how the description I gave made absolutely no reference to whether or not the theories are correct. The argument applies equally well regardless of any correspondence to reality or lack thereof. Nothing changes when we introduce mistakes to the picture because they are already in the picture. The only kind of mistakes that can hurt me are the ones that affect my decisions, and the only ones that can do that are the ones that affect my predictions. The point remains, if the predictions are the same, my actions are the same, the outcome is the same.
-2curi13y
You're still mistaken and have overlooked several things. And you have ignored my questions. In Popperian epistemology, we do not say things like They are anti-fallibilist, closed minded, and silly. We don't think our lack of imagination of how we could possibly be wrong is an argument that we are right. I want you to pin yourself down a little bit. What will you concede if you find out you are wrong about this? Will you concede a lot or almost nothing? Will you regard it as important and be glad, or will you be annoyed and bored? Will you learn much? Will your faith in Bayes be shaken? What do you think is at stake here? And are you even interested? You have expressed no interest in why I think you're mistaken, you just keep saying how I can't possibly have a point (even though you don't yet know what it is).
3benelliott13y
It annoys me a lot when people do this, because I can be wrong in many different ways. If I give a maths proof, then say I cannot see how it could be wrong, someone else might come up and ask me if I will give up my trust (trust, not faith, is what I have in Bayes by the way) in maths. When they reveal why I am wrong, it turns out I just made a mathematical error, I have learnt that I need to be more careful, not that maths is wrong. I am confident enough in that statement that I would be interested to find out why you think it is wrong. If the way in which you prove me wrong turns out to be interesting and important, rather than a technical detail or a single place where I said something I didn't mean, then it will likely cause a significant change in my world view. I will not just immediately switch to Popper, there are more than two alternatives after all, and I may well not give up on Bayes. This isn't a central tenet of Bayesian decision theory, (although it is a central tenet of instrumental rationality), so it won't refute the whole theory. My most likely response, if you really can show that more than prediction is required, is to acknowledge that at least one component of the complete Bayesian epistemology is still missing. It would not surprise me, although it would surprise me to find that this specific thing was what was missing. I'm not asserting that I could not possibly be wrong, that P(I am wrong) = 0. All I am saying is that I feel pretty sure about this, which I do.
2benelliott13y
Since you refuse to state your point I'm going to guess what it is. My guess is that you are referring to the point you made earlier about how the difference between "the seasons are caused by the earth tilting on its axis" and "the seasons are caused by the Goddess Demeter being upset about Persephone being in Hades" is that the former has a good explanation and the latter has a bad explanation. Is your point that if I don't care about explanations I have no means of distinguishing between them. I do not find this convincing, I do not currently have time to explain why but I can do so later if you want.
-4curi13y
i got bored of your evasions. you're not on the right track. if you were going to buy a black box which does multiplication, do you think all black boxes you could buy -- which you thoroughly test and find give perfect outputs for all inputs -- are equally good? disregard time taken to get an answer. and they only multiply numbers up to an absolute value of a trillion, say.
0benelliott13y
If I disregard time taken then yes, they are all equally good (assuming we don't add in other confounding factors like if one works by torturing puppies and the other doesn't).
-1curi13y
But one might work, internally, by torturing puppies. One might work, internally, in a way that will break sooner. One might work, internally, in a way that is harder to repair if it does break. One might work, internally, in a way that is harder or easier to convert to perform some other function. So the internal structure of knowledge, which makes identical predictions, does matter. All good programmers know this in the form of: some coding styles, which achieve the same output for the users, have different maintenance costs. This is an important fact about epistemology, that the internal structure of knowledge matters, not just its results. edit: Relating this to earlier conversation, one might work, internally, in a way so that if an error does happen (maybe they have error rates of 1 time in 500 trillion. or maybe something partially breaks after you buy it and use it a while), then the result you get is likely to be off by a small amount. Another might work internally in a way that if something goes wrong you may get random output. and lol @ Marius
2benelliott13y
I just said I was assuming away confounding factors like that for the sake of argument. Ideas do not 'break'. They are either correspond to reality or they do not, this is a timeless fact about them. They do not suddenly switch from corresponding to reality to not doing so. If by break you mean 'fail in some particular scenario that has not yet been considered' then the only way one can fail and the other not is if they generate different predictions in that scenario. The only other function would be to predict in a different domain, which would mean that if they still make the same predictions they are equally good.
-9curi13y
2Marius13y
FTFY
0[anonymous]13y
Mm, I'm not sure I entirely agree with that link- we might accept that most long term goals on maximisation will lead to what most people might recognise as morality, but I don't know if all goals are long term. It also makes no argument as to one goal being "better" than another. Theres sensible reasons for me to discourage people having the desire to kill me, for example, but I don't see that one could argue that I'm right and he's wrong. If someone is born with just one innate desire, that of killing me, its in her interest to pursue that goal. Now she might well act morally elsewhere while engaging fully in her training towards killing me, but at some point where she is confident that she will be able to kill me, she should drop everything else and kill me. Of course after this her life is empty, but she only had that one desire, and she had to fufill it at some point- she got absolutely no value from everything else. Now was she wrong to pursue that goal? I don't see how I can condemn her. I obviously will do everything in my power to stop her, and I would hope others in society would have goals which are interrupted by my untimely demise, but I don't see where condemnation comes in here. We had conflicting goals, and mine seem "nicer" from an intuitive argument, but if I lived in a world where everyone had a strong desire to see me dead then I imagine it would feel "nicer" to them for me to die, and "nasty" for me to survive.
2curi13y
Not all goals are long term. One of the purposes of the dialog is to explain that the foundations are not very important. That means you don't have to figure out the correct foundations or starting place to have objective morality. You can start wherever you want, because rather little depends on the starting place. Once you do make a ton of progress, when you're much wiser, if your starting place was squirrels you'd be able to reconsider it because it's so silly. The same holds for any other particularly dumb starting place. The ones that will be harder to change later are specifically the ones that you don't see as bad -- that you don't want to change. The ones that are either correct or you don't yet have enough knowledge to see the problems with them. Innate desires aren't morality. It's a bad argument "I was born this way therefore I should be this way". That's getting and ought from an is. Moving on, one way to move past the squirrel scenario, which enables you to criticize the squirrel starting point and many others, is you consider other scenarios. Drop the squirrels and put in something else, like minimizing bison. Put in a way variety of stuff. It's not too important what it is. Any kind of value, taken seriously, and which has something to say long term. Even wanting to kill someone will work if you also want them to stay dead forever (if you really want to make sure to destroy all the information that could be used to resurrect them later with advanced technology, and you want to know what kind of remains could be used for that and what would violate the laws of physics, then you will need advanced knowledge). So, you try the same thought experiment with bison-minimizing, or killing-forever. You find that some of the conclusions are the same, and some are different. Take only the ones that are the same for thousands of starting points. Those are the non-parochial ones. They are the ones that don't depend on your culture and biases. There is the
2[anonymous]13y
Sorry, but I just do not see how you can claim desires are not morality when you have yet to provide a basis for what it is! I see no reason to believe that those bases with common conclusions are somehow better. They might feel better, but thats not good enough
2curi13y
I've argued that morality is at least largely, if not entirely, independent of basis. So asking me for a basis isn't the right question. Can you give an example of a starting point you think avoids the common conclusions such as liberalism?
0[anonymous]13y
You have shown that an argument can be made that given a number of seemingly dissimilar, long term goals, e can make arguments which convincingly argue that to achieve them one should act in a manner people would generally consider moral. I am not convinced squirrel morality gives me an answer on specific moral questions (abortion say) but I can see how one might manage it. You have yet to convince me that short term bases will do the same: I am reasonably confident that many wil not. To claim theses bases as inferior seems to be begging the question to me. As to your specific question: how about a basis of wanting to prevent liberalism? It would certainly be difficult to achieve and counter productive, but to claim that those respective properties are bad begs the question: you need morality to condemn purposes which are going to cause nothing but pain for all involved.
2curi13y
If you were just to destroy the world, or build a static society and die of a meteor strike one day b/c your science never advanced, then life could evolve on another planet. You need enough science and other things to be able to affect the whole universe. And for that you need liberalism temporarily. Then at the very very end, when you're powerful enough to easily do whatever you want to the whole universe (needs to be well within your power, not at the limits of your power, or it's too risky, you might fail) then finally you can destroy or control everything. So that goal leads straight to billions of years of liberalism. And that does mean freedom of abortion: ruining people's lives to punish them for having sex does not make society wealthier, does not promote progress, etc... But does increase the risk of everyone dying of meteor before you advance enough to deal with such a problem. Accomplish short term things, in general, depends on principles. Suppose I want a promotion at work within the next few years. It's important to have the right kind of philosophy. I'll have a better shot at it if I think well. So I'll end up engaging with some big ideas. Not every single short term basis will lead somewhere interesting. If it's really short, it's not so important. Also consider this: we can conjecture that life is nice. People cannot use short term bases, which don't connect to big ideas, to criticize this. If they want to criticize it, they will have to engage with some big ideas, so then we get liberalism again.
2[anonymous]13y
Dealing with issues in order. OK, fine, once again you've taken a bases that I've given and assumed I want it to apply to the entire universe (note this isn't necessarily what most people actually mean. Just because I want humans to be happy doesn't necessarily mean I want a universe tiled with happy humans), but even under this assumption I'm not sure I agree- by encouraging liberalism in the short term we may make it impossible to create liberalism in the long term, and you are imagining a society which is human in nature. Humans like liberalism, as a rule, but to say that therefore morality needs liberalism is actually subjective on humans. If I invent a species of blergs who love illiberalism then I can get away with it. Bear in mind that an illiberal species isn't THAT hard to imagine- we suppose democracy is stable despite liberal societies being destroyed by more liberal ones. You make an assumption of stability based on the past 300 years or so of history, which seems somewhat presumptive. I actually agree that given sensible starting assumptions we can get to something that looks like morality, or at least argue strongly in its favour, but those bases have no reason outside of themselves to be accepted. They are axioms, and axioms are by necessity subjective. We can look at them and say "hey those seem sensible" and "hey, those lead to results that jibe with my intuitions", but we can't really defend them as inherent rules. Look at Eliezer's three worlds collide, with the Baby Eaters. While I disagree with many of the conclusions of that story, the evolution of the Baby Eaters doesn't sound totally implausible, but theres a society thats developed a morality utterly at odds with our own. On short term bases, I can obviously invent short term bases that don't work. You claim that my murderer is worried about my resurrection. Most aren't, and its easy to just say they want me to die once, and don't care heavily if I resurrect afterwards. If I do, their desi
-2curi13y
We have different priorities. What I want is: if people want to improve, then they can. There is an available method they can use, such as taking seriously their ideas and fully applying them instead of arbitrarily restricting them. Most murderers don't worry about resurrection. Yes, but I don't mind. The point is a person with a murder type of basis has a way out starting with his existing values. I think what you want is not possible methods of progress people could use if they wanted to, but some kind of guarantee. But there can't be one. For one thing, no matter what you come up with people could simply refuse to accept your arguments. They can refuse to accept mine too. I don't care. My interest is that they can improve if they like. That's enough. There doesn't have to be a way to force a truth on everyone (other than, you know, guns) for it to be an objective truth. They are easy to imagine. But they are only temporary. They always go extinct because they cannot deal with all the unforeseen problems they counter. No. You made an assumption about my reasoning. I certainly didn't say that. You just guessed it. If you'd asked my reasoning that isn't what I would have said.
2[anonymous]13y
Mm, I wonder if we are potentially arguing about the same thing here. I suspect our constructions of morality would look very similar at the end of the day, and that the word "objective" is getting in our way. I still don't see how one can possibly construct a morality which exists outside minds in a real way, as morality is a ffunction of sentience.
-6curi13y
1JoshuaZ13y
What evidence do you have for this claim? This isn't at all obvious to me. The only highly sapient species we encounter are humans. And homo sapiens aren't terribly liberal. Do you have examples of other species that are intrinsically illiberal that have gone extinct?
-2curi13y
without progress, you don't get advanced science. that means eventually you die to a super nova explosion or meteor or something. how could it be otherwise?
1JoshuaZ13y
You may need to think carefully about what you mean by illiberal and progress. You also may want to consider why an illiberal species can't construct new technologies as needed to deal with threats.
0[anonymous]13y
Urgh, typing this on my phone is less than fun. My point is pretty much finished though
5[anonymous]13y
The problem is, nobody else here (or very few people here) regards justification as impossible, You're essentially saying you refuse to engage by the same evidentiary rules as anyone else here. You're not going to change anyone's mind without providing justification. "At which point infinitely many of my 100% theories will be refuted. And infinitely many will remain. " Like I said, look up Kolmogrov Complexity and minimum message length. At any given time, the simplest of those 'theories' consistent with all data is the one with the highest probability.
3curi13y
Can you tell how ideas are justified, without creating a regress or other severe problem? Tell me the type of justificationism that works, then I will accept it.
0[anonymous]13y
Can you tell me at posterior probability you consider an idea justified, and how many different models can be grouped together under a single idea, without appealing to intuition or other fuzzy concepts? Also, can you replace the ">" in the top level post with html formatting of some sort?
2prase13y
It seems that your objection is basically that if I toss a coin seventeen times and it ends up in a sequence of HTTTHTHHHHTHTHTTH, there is a specific theory T1 (namely, that the physical laws cause the sequence to be HTTTHTHHHHTHTHTTH) which scores higher than the clearly correct explanation T2 (i.e. the probability of each sequence is the same 2^(-17)). But this is precisely why priors depend on the Kolmogorov complexity of hypotheses: with such a prior, the posterior of T2 will be higher than the posterior of T1. And, after all, you don't have infinitely many theories. Theories live in brains, not in an infinite Platonic space of ideas. Why should we care whether there are infinitely many ways to formulate a theory so absurd that nobody would think of it but still compatible with the evidence? Solomonoff induction tells you to ignore them, which agrees with the common sense.
0curi13y
Selectively ignoring theories, even when we're aware of them, is just bias, isn't it? I'm a bit surprised that someone here is saying to me "OK so mathematically, abstractly, we're screwed, but in practice it's not a big deal, proceed anyway". Most people here respect math and abstract thinking, and don't dismiss problems merely for involving substantial amounts of theory. Of course a prior can arbitrarily tell you which theories to prefer over others. But why those? You're getting into problems of arbitrary foundations.
2prase13y
Bias is a systematic error in judgement, something which yields bad results. It is incorrect to apply that label to heuristics which are working well. I haven't told you that we are abstractly screwed, but it's no big deal. We are not screwed, on the contrary, the Solomonoff induction is a consistent algorithm which works well in practice. It is as arbitrary as any axioms are arbitrary. You can't do any better if you want to have any axioms at all, or any method at all. If your epistemology isn't completely empty, it can be criticised for being arbitrary without regard to its actual details. And after all, what ultimately matters is whether it works practically, not some perceived lack of arbitrariness.
2calef13y
We're fundamentally incapable of making statements about reality without starting on some sort of arbitrary foundation. And I think describing it as "selectively ignoring" is doing it an injustice. We're deductively excluding, and it there were some evidence to appear that would contradict that exclusion, those theories would no longer be excluded. I'm actually have trouble finding a situation in which a fallibilist would accept/reject a proposition, and a Bayesian would do the opposite of the fallibilist. And I don't mean epistemological disagreements, I mean disagreements of the form "Theory Blah is not false."
2curi13y
This is something Popper disputes. He says you can start in the middle, or anywhere. Why can't that be done? I was talking about the theories that can't be deductively excluded b/c they make identical predictions for all available evidence.