An argument that the reason most "sasquatch" samples turn out to have human DNA is that sasquatch/wildman phenotype (real) is actually not very many mutations away from sapiens, because it's mostly just a result of re-enabling a bunch of traits that were disabled under sapiens self-domestication/neotenization https://www.againsttheinternet.com/post/60-revolutionary-biology-pt-2-the-development-and-evolution-of-sasquatch

I'm wondering if the "Zana just had african DNA" finding might have been a result of measurement or interpretation error: We don't know the sasquatch markers are, so even if they diverged from sapiens like 100,000 years ago (long enough for actual evolution to occur), as long as there hadn't been interbreeding with any other ethnicities, aren't there are tests that totally would have just said "sapiens with no asian or caucasian background therefore african"?

If so, that could be investigated.