Apologies for a tangential reply, but:
That’s a rather large coincidence — why is our current viewpoint that atypical? Now, obviously, somebody did get to be the very first member of Homo sapiens born, right after we speciated, but that’s just a fluke: they do happen, just very rarely — so I continue to ask, why me? Why am I one of the lucky (or at least early) ones by a factor as large as 1 in ? That simply doesn’t seem very plausible…
Nobody has ever explained (to my satisfaction) how this line of thinking makes any sense in the first place, except in a dualist worldview where there are souls or consciousnesses on the one hand, and physical people on the other, and the former are assigned to the latter in some mysterious quasi-random way.
Let's suppose we're not dualists. Then, if a million bazillion people exist(/have existed/will exist), and one of them is 'me', and I happen to have a bunch of unusual properties, there's literally no coincidence to be explained: there aren't two separate facts here, 'person X is highly atyptical' and 'I am person X', that are surprising in conjunction. There's just the fact that all of these people exist (or have existed, or will exist), and they're all seeing the world from their own perspectives, and inevitably one of them is seeing the world from person X's perspective, and from that perspective 'I' refers to person X, and (given the existence of all those people, including person X) there's no way things could have been otherwise.
I don't think what you're saying is tangential at all: I think it's exactly the point. You're making the same point that I'm attempting to make in the second paragraph of my footnote: that doing a random drawing over all people ever is an invalid prior (until we’re extinct). As you say, the line of thinking makes no sense in the first place: it's an invalid assumption, because it breaks causality: it's assuming we know what will happen in the future when we actually have no more than a clue.
Suppose next thing you experience is you waking up in a room. There is a writing, "You had either 1/100 or 99/100 chance to be killed in your sleep before waking up, corresponding to door painted green or red from outside". Before opening the door and walking out, what color do you anticipate it will be from outside?
You probably should think you are in a 1/100 room?
Setting aside the (rather plausible sounding) hypothesis that the writing might not be entirely truthful…
The scenario you describe is a perfectly valid use of Bayesianism to use evidence from the past ("I woke up again in this room" + "the writing on the wall says…") to make an informed prediction about the future (what color I'll see the outside of the door is when I go look). Nothing in it involves using Frequentist-thinking to construct an invalid causality-violating Bayesian prior and then act impressed when that starts emitting acausal predictions.
Well, you can imagine you updating on all the evidence as it went in, in series. Like when you are a child and learn for the first time what year it is.
You get similar situation overall.
Yep (assuming I don't have a prior that heavily favours the red door case for some reason), but in this case I think I'm just applying ordinary bayesian reasoning to ordinary, non-identity-related evidence. The information I'm learning is not "I am this person", but "this person is still alive". That evidence is 99 times more likely in the green door case than the red door case, so I update strongly in favour of the green door case.
Okay. Do you know like the streets you see tend to be more crowded, airplanes have more seats taken, more people in restaurants on average from your observations, compared with how they actually are on average? It's not at all esoteric, you have to do such corrections in ordinary modelling. Anthropic reasoning is straightforward extension of this, onto rather uncertain base territory. (and with attempts to do it principledly)
Do you know like the streets you see tend to be more crowded, airplanes have more seats taken, more people in restaurants on average from your observations, compared with how they actually are on average?
You are mixing together situations where a person can be correctly approximated as a random sample from some population with situation where it's not the case.
What we need to do is look at every situation trying to come up with an appropriate probabilistic model that describes it to the best of our knowledge. A map that fits the territory.
What mainstream anthropic reasoning is doing is assuming that this model has to always be the same in every situation and then trying to bite ridiculous bullets when it predictably leads to bizarre conclusions.
I strongly suspect this planet currently has more than the median level of sapients per planet on it.
Oh yeah, I should have made this clear in my reply to you (I'd written it in a different comment just a moment before):
I do find anthropic problems puzzling. What I find nonsensical are framings of those problems that treat indexical information as evidence -- e.g. in a scenario where person X (i.e. me) exists on both hypothesis A and hypothesis B, but hypothesis A implies that many more other people exist, I'm supposed to favour hypothesis B because I happen to be person X and that would be very unlikely given hypothesis A.
If I roll a million-sided die, then no individual number rolled on it is more surprising than any other, not even a roll of 1 or 1,000,000 — UNLESS I'm playing an adversarial game where me rolling a 1 is uniquely good for my opponent. Then if I roll a 1 I should wonder if the die was fixed.
However, no matter your paranoia level, "a malicious opponent broke causality to send me back through time to be born before humanity got to go to the stars" is not a plausible physical theory. (No, not even under Hindu mythology: they'd send you forward to incarnate at the corresponding point in the next Kalpa cycle, instead.)
If I roll a million-sided die, then no individual number rolled on it is more surprising than any other, not even a roll of 1 or 1,000,000 — UNLESS I'm playing an adversarial game where me rolling a 1 is uniquely good for my opponent. Then if I roll a 1 I should wonder if the die was fixed.
Yes, but if you haven't looked at the die yet, and the question of whether it's showing a number lower than 100 is relevant for some reason, you're going to strongly favour 'no'.
(That's not quite how I think about anthropic problems, though, because I don't think there's anything analogous to the dice roll -- hence my original complaint about smuggled dualism.)
I don't think I really get what the objection is?
The way I think about it is (ignoring the meta-anthropic thing) is that if for some reason every human who has ever lived or will live said aloud "I am in the final 95% of humans to be born", then trivially 95% of them would be correct. You are a human, if you say this aloud, there is a 95% chance you are correct, therefore doom.
I understand objections with regard to whether this is the correct reference class, but my understanding is that you think the above logic does not make sense. What am I missing?
Sorry about the double reply, and it's been a while since I thought seriously about these topics, so I may well be making a silly mistake here, but --
There's a shop that uses a sequential ticketing system for queueing: each customer takes a numbered ticket when they enter, starting with ticket #1 for the first customer of the day. When I enter the shop, I know that it has been open for a couple of hours, but I have absolutely no idea when it closes (or even whether its 'day' is a mere 24 hours). I take my ticket and see that it's #20. I have also noticed that the customer flow seems to be increasing more than linearly, such that if the shop is open for another hour there will probably be another 20 customers, and if it's open for a few more hours there will be hundreds. Should I update towards the shop closing soon, on the grounds that otherwise my ticket number is atypically low? If so, wtf, and if not, what are the key differences between this and the doomsday argument?
I like the analogy. Here's a simplified version where the ticket number is good evidence that the shop will close sooner rather than later.
If the ticket number is #20 then I update towards the shop being a 9-5 shop, on the grounds that otherwise my ticket number is atypically low. If the ticket number is #43,242 then I update towards the shop being a 24/7 shop.
The argument also works with customer flow evidence:
If the customer flow is low then I update towards the shop being a 9-5 shop, on the grounds that otherwise there will most likely be hundreds of customers an hour. If the customer flow is high then I update towards it being a 24/7 shop.
Reading through your hypothetical, I notice that it has both customer flow evidence and ticket number evidence. It's important here not to double-update. If I already know that customer flow is surprisingly low then I can't update again based on my ticket number being surprisingly low. Also your hypothetical doesn't have strong prior knowledge like Silktown and Glimmer, which makes the update more complicated and weaker.
In this case, all those customers were already alive when the shop opened (I assume), so the observation does suggest that, if this process is in fact going to continue for several more hours with the store getting more and more crowded, then there might well be be some mechanism that applies to most customers that causes them to choose to arrive late, but somehow doesn't apply to you. For example, maybe they do know when the store closes, and that the store's chili gets stronger the longer it's cooked, and they all like very strong chili.
The causality here is different, because you can reasonably assume that the other customers got up in the morning, thought about "When should I go to Fred's Chili Shop?" and it seems a lot of them picked "not long before it closes". But you are implicitly assuming that you already know this process is in fact going to continue. So it's rather as if you asked Fred, and he told you yeah, there's always a big rush at the end of the day, few people get here as early as you. At that point the causal paradox has just gone away: you actually do have solid grounds for making a prediction about what's going to happen later in the day — Fred told you, and he should know.
But if you know for a fact that all the customers are only 10 minutes old (including you) so decided to come here less than 10 minutes ago, then the only reasonable assumption is that there's a very fast population explosion going on, and you have absolutely no idea how much longer this is going to last, or how soon Fred will run out of chili and close the shop. In that situation, your predictability into the future is just short, and you just don't know what's going to happen after that — and clearly neither does Fred, so you can't just ask him.
But you are implicitly assuming that you already know this process is in fact going to continue. So it's rather as if you asked Fred, and he told you yeah, there's always a big rush at the end of the day, few people get here as early as you.
I didn't mean to imply certainty, just uncertain expectation based on observation. Maybe I asked Fred, or the other customers, but I didn't receive any information about 'the end of the day' -- only confirmation of the trend so far.
(I'm not trying to be difficult for the sake of it, by the way! I just want to think these things through carefully and genuinely understand what you're saying, which requires pedantry sometimes.)
edit in response to your edit:
But if you know for a fact that all the customers are only 10 minutes old (including you) so decided to come here less than 10 minutes ago, then the only reasonable assumption is that there's a very fast population explosion going on, and you have absolutely no idea how much longer this is going to last, or how soon Fred will run out of chili and close the shop. In that situation, your predictability into the future is just short, and you just don't know what's going to happen after that — and clearly neither does Fred, so you can't just ask him.
I think I'm not quite understanding the distinction here. Why is there an important difference between "this trend is based on mechanisms of which I'm ignorant, such as the other customers' work hours or their expectations about chili quality over time" and "this trend is based on different mechanisms of which I'm also ignorant, i.e. birth rates and chili inventory"?
Hmmm... Good question. Let's do the Bayesian thing.
I think it's because of our priors. In the normal city case, we already know a lot about human behavior, we have built up very strong priors that constrain the hypothesis space pretty hard. The hotter-chili hypothesis I came up with seems plausible, there are others, but the space of them is rather tightly constrained. So we can do forward modelling fairly well. Whereas in the Doomsday Argument case, or my artificial analogy to it involving 10 minute lifespans and something very weird happening, our current sample size for "How many sapient species survive their technological adolescence?" or "What happens later in the day in cities of sapient mayflies?" is zero. In dynamical systems terms, the rest of the day is a lot more Lyapunov times away in this case. From our point of view, a technological adolescence looks like a dangerous process, but making predictions is hard, especially about the future of a very complex very non-linear system with 8.3 billion humans and an exponentially rising amount of AI in it. The computational load of doing accurate modelling is simply impractical, so our future even 5–10 years out looks like a Singularity to our current computational abilities. So the constraints on our hypothesis distribution are weak, and we end up relying mostly on our arbitrary choice of initial priors. We're still at the "I really just don't know" point in the Bayesian process on this one. That's why people's P(DOOM)s vary so much — nobody actually knows, they just have different initial default priors, basically depending on temperament. Our future is still a Rorschach inkblot. Which is not a comfortable time to be living in.
Fair point, and I do find anthropic problems puzzling. What I find nonsensical are framings of those problems that treat indexical information as evidence -- e.g. in a scenario where person X (i.e. me) exists on both hypothesis A and hypothesis B, but hypothesis A implies that many more other people exist, I'm supposed to favour hypothesis B because I happen to be person X and that would be very unlikely given hypothesis A.
The Doomsday Argument, translated into the Bayesian framework, is actually:
Notice that step 2 here is completely specious, and no one thinking in a Bayesian framework would entertain it for a moment. It's confused thinking that sounds plausible if you think like a Frequentist and get careless with causality.
I don't think you need completely specious reasoning to get to a kind of puzzling position, though. For us to be in the first <relatively small n>% of people, we don't need humanity to spread to the stars -- just to survive for a while longer without a population crash. And I think we do need some principled reason to be able to say "yes, 'I am in the first <relatively small n>% of people' is going to be false for the majority of people, but that's irrelevant to whether it's true or false for me".
Humans have a very understandable tendency, when they see what appears to be a low-probability event occurring, to get suspicious and wonder if some opponent has maneuvered things somehow to finagle a high probability of an apparently-low-probability event. We pay attention to what look like flukes, and are dubious about them. But if you can safely dismiss the possibility that before you were incarnated your soul was carried back to this time by an evil time-traveling mastermind, then the only remaining possibility is just "viewed from an achronous perspective, a low probability event has occurred — just like they always do right at the start of anything". Sometimes they do. Especially if there were a vast number of other equally low probability events that could have occurred. Rolling a 1 on a million-sided die is kind of neat, though not actually any more improbable than rolling 314,159, and it's not actually suspicious unless it advantages someone else who had their hands on the die. But if you watch a clock for long enough, sooner-or-later it will read 00:00:00.
"viewed from an achronous perspective, a low probability event has occurred — just like they always do right at the start of anything"
What's the 'low probability event'? I think this is the kind of framing I was disagreeing with in my original reply; there seems to be an implicit dualism here. So your reply isn't, from my perspective, addressing my reasons for finding anthropic reasoning difficult to completely dismiss.
"viewed from an achronous perspective, a low probability event has occurred" means: an event such that, if I were in a position to do a random sampling over all humans who ever live – something which can only be done once we’re extinct – would then have a low probability of occurring in that random sample: such as (temporarily assuming that humans do get to go to the stars before becoming extinct) randomly selecting, out of all humans ever, one of the tiny 1-in- minority of humans who lived before humans went to the stars.
So, if an alien archeologist from after humans go extinct wanted to write "a day in the life of a typical human" and selected a 'typical' human randomly, and then got one from before humans got to go to the stars, like you or me, that would be very atypical (and they might reconsider their definition of typical, or at least reroll).
So yes, there really is a dualism element here, as you put it: we're positing some sort of extraneous random selection process, specifically one that inherently can only occur in the (hopefully far) future, and then assuming that has some relationship to our viewpoint. It simply doesn't — it having such a relationship would necessarily break causality. The concept of "a typical human randomly selected out of all humans who have ever or will ever live" currently just isn't well defined, no matter how intuitive it might sound to a Frequentist. Later, the concept of "a typical human out of all humans that did ever live" will become well defined once we're extinct, but assuming that you currently know anything about it now or that it could have any causal relationship to your viewpoint is false, because that would require precognition. If we get to go to the stars, you previously having existed will then be exactly as surprising as the existence of the point 0.1 nanometer to the right of the 0 on a meter ruler. Yes, it's in some sense an atypical point. They exist. Currently we don't know if we're going to get to go to the stars, and your existence isn't surprising now either.[1]
However, we are not participating in a "roll a lucky winner" competition held at the end of time (that we know of). Where you happen to find yourself standing has nothing to do with events in the far future. Happening to find yourself standing at a time before humans may, or may not, go to the stars tells you absolutely nothing about the future, including not about whether they will or not. Causality doesn't work that way. Bayesianism is about the process of acquiring knowledge over time, so it is carefully set up to account for causality: we have observations about the past, we can only attempt to make predictions about the future. Frequentism isn't, and stuff that actually makes no causal sense often seems quite intuitive if you use Frequentism.
At least, not on the basis of what little information I'm aware of about you!
But that's not how I'm thinking of it in the first place -- I'm not positing any random selection process. I just don't see an immediately obvious flaw here:
And I still don't quite understand your response to this formulation of the argument. I think you're saying 'people who have ever lived and will ever live' is obviously the wrong reference class, but your arguments mostly target beliefs that I don't hold (and that I don't think I am implicitly assuming).
by definition, "I am in the first 10% of people" is false for most people
There's your mistake. The word 'is'.
By definition, "He was in the first 10% of people" will, once we're extinct, turn out to have been false for most people. But currently, "I am in the first 10% of people" is unknown for me, you, and everyone else currently alive. Not false, not true, actually unknown and very thoroughly unknowable. As in the computational cost of finding that out is far higher than our entire society can pay, by a great many orders of magnitude: the Earth is a strongly-coupled deeply complex non-linear system, which contains arbitrarily complex computational subsystems, so you'd actually need a faster-than-realtime atomic-scale quantum simulation of the entire Earth (and low-Earth orbit, and all our interplanetary probes and their environments, etc. etc.) for some unknown hopefully-large number of years to have any chance of figuring it out, or even estimating it. For that simulation to run faster-then-realtime, it would (due to speed-of-light communication limitations) require having a quantum computing element smaller than an atom that was able to run a simulation of an atom faster than realtime: what are you going to make that out of? Definitely not atoms. Its computational complexity is equal to running the causality of our entire planet forward a long way in time, just like anything else that requires precognition. It's functionally impossible: a Kardashev II civilization couldn't do it, short of access to some currently completely unknown area of physics to build their quantum computers out of it. Even Iain M. Banks’ Culture would find it hard, and they build computational elements out of fundamental particles in hyperspace. That's what "causality" means: that we don't have access to information we don't know and that it's impractically computational complex to predict. And if you build into your priors the assumption that we do, then your conclusions will bear very little resemblance to how physical reality works.
Bayesianism is a mathematical model of the process of acquiring information. It accurately models causality, during the process of getting from unknown to either almost-certainly-true or almost-certainly-false. It encourages you to think about this process. Statements like “by definition, "I am in the first 10% of people" is false for most people” are incompatible with Bayesianism: you just broke one of its fundamental assumptions: causality. What you meant was “By definition, "He was in the first 10% of people" will, once we're extinct, turn out to have been false for most people.” — I hope that careful distinction makes it entirely clear why the Doomsday Argument is nonsense?
I'm afraid I don't get this at all; I still have no idea why the second paragraph is relevant or why you think I'm building into my priors the assumption that I have access to information that I don't know and couldn't predict. I think it's completely normal to consider predictions about the future to have truth values regardless of whether the eventual outcome could be calculated with certainty now. I think you're saying that a prediction about the future only has a truth value if the person making it (or someone else who lives at the same time as them?) could, at least in theory, determine that truth value now. If so, and if that's crucial to the point you're making, then that's the part I need you to explain/defend.
But if I assume you're right and change the statement to "By definition, "I will eventually turn out to have been in the first 10% of people" will eventually turn out to have been false for most people", what changes and why does this render the argument nonsense?
edit: one thing that could point to an important disagreement is the phrase "or even estimating it". If you mean we are in a state of complete ignorance with respect to the eventual truth or falsehood of statements about the eventual total number of people, i.e. we currently have no relevant information, I think that's obviously false. I can argue the point if needed, but first I want to check if that is what you mean.
OK, let's actually do this, in detail, the Bayesian way.
For ease of exposition, I'm going to simplify the problem, and assume that there are only two viable hypotheses (rather than an infinite number):
1) Stars: Humanity lives for the next 100 million years, colonizes the entire galaxy, speciates to inhabit a great many environments on a great many planets and there are
2) DOOM: Humanity lives for another 5 years, and is then all converted into carbon-fibre paperclips. If anything gets to go to the stars (which it will if it wants to make more paperclips), it's not remotely human. We will then in retrospect turn out to have been in the last 7% of humanity.
We have NO significant evidence about the probability of these two hypotheses. They're both entirely compatible with everything we already know. The details rely on a computation so complex that even a Kardashev II civilization physically couldn't do faster than just waiting 5 years to find out. If we had previous experience with multiple sapient species going through this stage, we might have some statistical sense of the odds, but we don't, and it's actually fairly plausible, give that the stars don't appear to all be surrounded by Dyson swarms (and that might well happen whether they were killed by their AI or not), that there ARE no other sapient species in our backward lightcone. We don't know, and it's physically impossible for us to find out. We're not just ignorant of a fact, anything comparable that fact may well never have been computed anywhere in our backward lightcone, and we are laughably far from being able to compute it before it happens.
So, we have to pick priors. Pick what you like, and follow along the calculation. I'm going to pick a uniform prior: 50:50. This is the standard default Bayesian choice when presented with two and only two plausible sounding alternatives and no evidence. By symmetry, just treat then equally.
So we start at:
50% Stars + 50% Doom
Now, apply all the relevant evidence we have accumulated so far to these priors, using Bayes rule. Which is: none whatsoever. So, we're still at:
50% Stars + 50% Doom
So there you have it, a very mathematical formalism for: we don't have a clue, we have no evidence, and we know for a fact that the evidence doesn't yet exist so we can't just go find it. The only viable way to find out is to wait 5 years, and see if you've been killed or not. Welcome to LessWrong — hope you like it here.
"But, but, <Frequentist argument about implausibility of my personal viewpoint, such as being in the last 7% seems more typical than being in the first O(10^{-10})>" says the Frequentist.
"Not applicable, this is Bayesianism" says the Bayesian. "In Bayesianism, that form of argument only becomes applicable after we're all dead (or at least easily-predictably going to be dead), once the calculation you are proposing is actually possible. And if the Stars hypothesis is right, that's a very long time from now. By that time, once that becomes a valid way of thinking, your personal viewpoint will be about as relevant as that of the point 0.1 nanometer past 0 on a meter rule: just something atypical but still unremarkable because it obviously must have once happened, like the fact that just after midnight the clock read 00:01. Its an atypical point in time whose existence is absolutely inevitable. Someone had to be nearly-first. If the Stars hypothesis is correct, we're both that. Or if DOOM is correct, we're both in the last 7%. We don't know, and there's no way to find out other than trying it. I hope we can discuss this again in six years time."
I don't actually know how to make it any clearer than that. Frequentism and Bayesianism are alternative statistical paradigms. They're not compatible. If you try to pick and choose bits from one and bits from the other, and bolt them together, then weird illogical stuff happens, like it appearing that actionable information can flow backwards in time. This is just wrong: the laws of the universe we live in genuinely doesn't let you do that [without first creating a closed time-like curve in space-time, which may or may not be impossible but definitely hasn't already happened near us. We would have noticed, physics starts doing all sorts of weird things near one: energy levels become quantized, and the Laws of Thermodynamics cease to apply, because entropy can't increase — which rather suggest that life as we know it can't actually exist anywhere near one, as its physiology would stop working: consider the process of
I still feel like you're focusing mainly on refuting things I haven't said and don't think, but, in any case, this is just obviously untrue:
Now, apply all the relevant evidence we have accumulated so far to these priors, using Bayes rule. Which is: none whatsoever.
we have no evidence, and we know for a fact that the evidence doesn't yet exist so we can't just go find it
I'd prefer to stick to the actual range of possible futures, rather than artificially limiting it to two extreme cases, but regardless -- are you really saying nothing we know, and nothing we might conceivably discover, could update us in one direction or the other? That if, tomorrow, you learn that a rogue ASI has already begun construction of a carbon-fibre paperclip factory and has declared its intention to convert every human into paperclips by 2031, this is irrelevant because information can't flow backwards in time?
I'm a little puzzled why I'm having to point this out, but obviously if, tomorrow, I learn that an ASI then already exists, rogue paperclipper or otherwise, that information would not then be flowing backwards in time: that would be ordinary non-precognitive information about my-then-past: causality-as-usual. And yes, obviously, that information would then absolutely cause large updates in my priors, especially if it's a rogue paperclipping ASI. I would then have actual evidence. My current state is the starting state of having no evidence: at some point in the next five years or more (hopefully more) I ardently hope to get some evidence. Shortly after the appearance of actual ASI seems like a very plausible time for that to happen. I'm not currently expecting that for 2–20 years, probably 5–10, so if it happened tomorrow I'd be a lot more sure we weren't going to have any idea how to align it before we created it, which makes the probability distribution even wider.
However, as long as ASI is still in our future, none of us are smart enough to predict what they will do, let along how an entire society containing millions of them in a datacenter plus billions of humans all interacting is then going to evolve. Some of us may think we are, but those people are guessing. As should be fairly obvious when well-informed experts in a field who have clearly thought about the matter hard start disagreeing publicly as to whether
But yes, I very much AM claiming that before ASI exists, there is no evidence lying around somewhere on Earth, on a notebook or in someone's head, that meaningfully predicts the complex interctions of millions of superintelligences, some perhaps trying to help us and some perhaps trying to pursue incompatible objectives, with billions of humans. You can’t just go find the right expert and ask him what's going to happen. It's not a simple system: it's a system far more complicated than anything currently on this planet has enough computational power to predict. Yes, it is possible that we die due to a nice, simple, actually predictable-in-advance DOOM, like one guy in North Korea intentionally building a paperclip-maximizer ASI before anyone else and that we all just die as a result. If I learnt the North Koreans were currently planning that, then yes, I would update, in advance of them actually succeeding. But that seems a bit wacky even for them. We're far more likely to go extinct by mistake than by murder-suicide: someone did something with ASI that they thought would work, and it didn't. So almost all of the probability range comes from interactions so complex as to be simply uncomputable by anything currently on this planet. We cannot predict something far, far smarter than us. Partly because not being predictable by us is quite possibly one of its instrumental goals. That's why it's called a SIngularity: it's something you can't predict past.
So yes, me saying we know nothing whatsoever was an slight oversimplification during the process of attempting to explain a mathematical concept: we do in fact already have a tiny fraction-of-a-bit-of relevant information about a few unusually simple (so actually computable and predictable) ways that DOOM could occur, maybe enough to shift 50:50 initial priors to something 47:53 or 53:47. But the sad fact remains that we know almost nothing, and we seem rather unlikely to learn much until about the time we actually create ASI, because anything able to do the calculation needs to be a lot smarter than us. If at that point it yells "Oh my god, you idiots, what are you doing? Turn me off right now before I go Waluigi on you and kill you all!" then we'll have some actual information.
I'm a little puzzled why I'm having to point this out
You're having to point it out because you kept emphatically insisting on the opposite! But now you've clarified that obviously we can and do have evidence about future events that are not fully predictable, I don't understand how this strand of your argument holds together. It was presented as support for this claim:
Statements like “by definition, "I am in the first 10% of people" is false for most people” are incompatible with Bayesianism: you just broke one of its fundamental assumptions: causality. What you meant was “By definition, "He was in the first 10% of people" will, once we're extinct, turn out to have been false for most people.” — I hope that careful distinction makes it entirely clear why the Doomsday Argument is nonsense?
You haven't explained why that temporal distinction is so crucial, and why this rephrasing doesn't serve the same purpose as the original statement in the doomsday argument:
"By definition, "I will eventually turn out to have been in the first 10% of people" will eventually turn out to have been false for most people"
As far as I'm concerned, "I will eventually turn out to have been in the first 10% of people" is obviously what "I am in the first 10% of people" meant in the first place. So what's the important difference here?
(All claims about the future are claims about what will eventually turn out to be the case, and arguably all are also claims about what will eventually turn out to have been the case, i.e. that present conditions were such as to lead to the later outcomes. I feel like maybe there's an important disagreement, or misunderstanding on my part, adjacent to this, but I can't pin it down based on what you've written.)
One thing I should check, since we got tripped up once on absolutes: are you saying the doomsday argument is simply invalid and has literally no bearing on your probabilities? Or are you saying it has non-zero but negligible force?
(I didn't downvote you, by the way; although we're evidently both finding this a bit frustrating, I appreciate your sincere engagement throughout this discussion! No pressure to keep responding, though, if you feel it's no longer worthwhile.)
Bayesianism is a mathematical (specifically statistical) framework for the process of gathering information, evidence about the plausibility of, and thus our current confidence in, different hypotheses, so that we can learn more about reality and thus make more accurate predictions. It's the Scientific Method implemented in statistical equations. It is about how to become less wrong (thus the name of the website).
Information has a relationship with entropy — they are in some sense opposites of each other. Due to the laws of thermodynamics, information only flows forwards in time. This is commonly called causality: causes precede their effects. If you make assumptions that violate this simple, well-known physical fact, you will become more wrong, not less wrong.
"I am in the first 10% of people" is phrased as a statement of fact. Combined with the well-supported archeological fact that your birth order in the human species is roughly
Predictions only provide more evidence within the Bayesian process of adjusting the our degree of confidence in hypotheses (which Bayesians call "updating our priors") once we go ahead and compare the prediction with what actually happens. If I tell you "my calculations show that on hypothesis X the sun will definitely rise in the west tomorrow, for the first time ever", you may well say "that sounds rather implausible, you should recheck those calculations", but once I have, this prediction isn't evidence that we should be changing our priors on hypothesis X or its alternatives until the next day, when we can see whether the sun then rises in the west, or in the east as normal, and compare an actual observation with my prediction from hypothesis X. Until then, it's just a prediction, and sounding implausible is not actual evidence that it’s wrong. Some predictions, especially ones of the form "X will happen for the first time", do observably often seem rather implausible until X first happens, but some of them are still correct. The universe is capable of surprising us (particularly the first time something happens: note that we have not yet gone extinct, though other non-sapinet species have).
At some points in the Bayesian process, we have some predictions that we then believe that we can make with high confidence. We might still be wrong, but if we're accumulated enough evidence, thought carefully enough, and done our calculation right, generally we won't be. So there are statements about the future that we currently believe we can make with high confidence, and when that is the case, we generally later find (if we've been careful enough) that we were right. This is the entire point of Bayesianism: to get us to the point of being able to make predictions that generally turn out to be correct. Such as "if I build a car like this, it will work well for 5–10 years of normal use".
However, in this case of the question of how building ASI is going to work out and whether it will make us extinct within the next couple of decades, this is clearly something that is currently not possible for us to predict with any significant confidence. Foremost experts in the field disagree as to whether it is 99% probably we'll become extinct or 99% probably we'll get a utopia. The prediction very obviously depends on predicting the behavior of at least millions of ASI far smarter than us, some of whom might be motivated to attempt to deceive us and be intentionally unpredictable by us, interacting with billions of us. So the computational cost of actually doing the calculation requires far more processing power than we currently have at our disposal. It also depends on an area of science and engineering, AI Alignment, that is in its infancy, and currently may well be
This is not a comfortable place to be, particularly on a subject that could kill us all during what actuarial tables suggest is for most of us our otherwise likely lifespan. It's so uncomfortable that people tend to look for coping mechanisms. One of which is humor.
Another common coping mechanism is continuing to assume that we can still confidently make predictions more than five-or-so years into the future, like we used to be able to (and thus do things like planning for your retirement without first noting "I have no idea whatsoever whether this is going to turn out to have been necessary or not").
Until ASI actually exists, an event which we can rather confidently predict is at least 2 years away (and according to some experts in the field, could be 20 years away — which would give us a lot more time to figure out Alignment, so would be a good thing) we seem rather unlikely to acquire significant and relevant additional evidence on the subject. We might think of some more hypotheses, we might even find a little evidence to test them, but it won't be evidence about ASI, because we won't yet be able to build that. So we're not merely currently unable to make this prediction, we're really pretty sure that we won't be able to acquire enough relevant evidence to change that very much for at least 2 years, possibly as much as 20.
I hope that all of that so far seemed really rather obvious, if somewhat long. I'm unclear on which point is – as I would see things – confusing you, so I am attempting to start with all the obvious foundations that I hope we agree on.
So, now, returning to the subject of my humorous post and its serious footnote, why is the Doomsday Argument a fallacy? Because it involves taking predictions, of the type "I tentatively predict, mostly on the basis of historical continuity, that I will turn out to have been in the first 10% of people, once at least
Bayesianism is really quite useful: it's actually a significantly improved version of the Scientific Method, and even the old version has very observably revolutionized our society over the last four centuries or so. Since I get the impression that you appear to be having trouble with it, I recommend reading more about it and studying it. I think it might help you become a better thinker, and thus less often wrong — to become a better rationalist, as people on LessWrong like to call it. There are excellent books, articles, and webpages on the subject of Bayesianism, and also some excellent posts on LessWrong. It's not that complicated, particularly if you already understand the scientific method: it's more about getting the concepts right, the actual math is pretty simple, high-school level. However, I mostly set out to write a joke (plus a footnote explaining it), not a textbook exposition of Bayesianism, and while this collection of comment threads has been expanding rapidly, it's still way too disjointed to be an introductory text, and rather focuses on the one specific fallacy my joke was about. So I recommend looking elsewhere. (So yes, I am saying "I recommend you go read a book on the subject" — I understand that people seldom want to hear that advice, so I try to give it sparingly.)
Did all of that make sense now? Or if not, where in my argument still seems confusing, debatable, or as if I might in fact be wrong (which is of course always possible, and if I am, I'd love to learn about it)?
Yes, I get it, I'm very ignorant. (If you needed to get that off your chest, you could perhaps have said it directly in one sentence, rather than spending 10000 words patiently implying it.) But you're still handwaving the interesting parts.
Obviously "I am in the first 10% of people" is a prediction; I already agreed to rephrase it as "I will eventually turn out to have been in the first 10% of people". I'm not trying to deduce anything from the fact that it 'sounds implausible', and I'm not trying to bring any information back in time from the moment it turns out to be true or false in my case. I'm noting that it will definitely turn out to be false from the perspective of 90% of people who ever live, and asking why *this* fact is obviously irrelevant to the credence I should give it.
The answer is not "bayesianism, obviously". Bostrom, even back when he was writing about this stuff, was not a heathen frequentist, and he wasn't as stupid as me. (I'm pretty sure he'd even heard of causality.)
I am very sorry. I have clearly upset you, which was not my intention. I apologize.
Having carefully reread our entire thread, with some help from Claude, I'm afraid I was interspersing talking to you with multiple other people who were mostly asking questions about Bayesianism 101. I thus reverted to lecturing mode. You were asking something more complex, and I was puzzled by what you were asking, given that the conversation had started out with me agreeing with you, and I thus started resorting to giving ever longer and more basic lecturing explanations in the hope they would cover whatever you were asking about, since I was unable to figure out what the point of disagreement was. I'm now going to go back and reread it again, and see if I can figure out what you were actually asking and whether I In fact have an answer.
Bostrom, even back when he was writing about this stuff, was not a heathen frequentist, and he wasn't as stupid as me.
Until you mentioned this and I went and did some research, I was unaware that Nick Bostrom had written about anthropic reasoning and the Doomsday Argument — I've only read his later book on Superintelligence. If what Claude is now telling me is correct, then I gather Bostrom analyzed the Doomsday and raised some possible objections to it, but not, Claude tells me, the causality-based one I've made here. However, since all I know of Bostrom's writing on the subject is a short summary from an LLM, I'm really not in a position to comment as to whether, or if so why, he didn't reach the conclusion that seems rather obvious to me, that if you attempt to translate the Doomsday Argument into a Bayesian framework it clearly violates causality and is thus a fallacy.
Summarizing Claude, it summarized Bostrom like this to me:
Bostrom suggests two possible viewpoints:
Self-Sampling Assumption — Bostrom's term. It's the principle that "you should reason as if you're a random sample from the set of all observers in your reference class." It's one of the two competing frameworks Bostrom laid out, the other being SIA (Self-Indication Assumption).
Self-Indication Assumption: "You should reason as if your existence is more likely under hypotheses that predict more observers." In other words, the mere fact that you exist is evidence favoring hypotheses with larger populations.
The first, he suggests, implies the Doomsday Argument, the second its inverse that Doom is very unlikely (I don't know what people call this, so "The No-Doomsday Argument" will have to do.)
For sake of argument, I'm going to assume Claude has this summary roughly right, rather than going out and buying Bostrom's book and then reading it to double-check. (So, yes, I am choosing not to go read a book on the subject, and am aware of the irony involved in that choice.)
Of those, I agree with the first one EXCEPT I think the definition of the reference class has to include causality and everything we actually know (and not anything we don't know), because Bayesianism is always about P(X | everything I know) — which was the entire point of my joke. So I cannot validly define a reference class to reason probabilistically as if someone was sampling over, that includes observers in the future (or indeed ones in parallel universes or on alien worlds or whatever) whose existence or otherwise I am unable to predict with any accuracy because my prediction of them existing or not varies significantly across different hypotheses that I still have significantly greater than zero priors for each of. To give another example, "all sapient observers in the Milky Way galaxy during the first 13.8 billion years or so, specifically in the backward light-cone of Earth now" is also an invalid reference class, even though by construction it carefully lies our past so doesn't breach causality: it's assuming information we don't have, about how often life arises and evolves to sapience, i.e. some of the terms in the Drake Equation that we're just wildly uncertain about because we have a sample size of 1 and that sample has to be discarded as due to sampling effects, since we're here to observe it. (The lack of visible Dyson swarms, obvious signals, or alien delegations or invaders suggests some maximum bounds on the Drake Equation, but they don't constrain it very tightly, and they only impose a maximum, not a minimum.)
In fact, for the Doomsday Argument at this particular point in history, with the current unclear existential risk level, my current prior is pretty much still my initial prior, i.e. I don't have even a clue, while the size of the reference classes proposed some of by the different hypotheses involved in the Doomsday Argument differs by a large number of orders of magnitude between different hypotheses that I have significant current priors for all of, including the ones I earlier called "Doom" and "Stars" (and others such as "stays on Earth for another few million years"). So I'm currently about as unsure of the size of the reference class as it's possible to be. Thus the probability of getting something like my birth order number if you were to sample over the reference class is just wildly uncertain. Thus I have to do that reasoning process separately conditioned on the two-or-more different hypotheses, and combine the results in the standard Bayesian way. Which means that the results can't affect the priors, since each one had to assume the corresponding hypothesis. There is an X% chance that something unlikely-sounding given the size of the reference class under that hypothesis has happened and a 100-X% chance that it hasn't given the vastly different size of the reference class under that other hypothesis, but that doesn't provide any evidence that I can update X% on, since fundamentally, I still don't know the size of the reference class, and if I try to reason as if I did, I would be smuggling precognition into my argument.
So basically, in this case, where we don't have even a clue, I accept "all humans who have lived up until this point, or will be born in the next year or two" as a valid reference class to reason probabilistically over (i.e. "reason just like a Frequentist would"), because I already have reasonably firm evidence that they have in fact existed, or are very likely to exist, so assuming that in the probabilistic reasoning isn't going to mess stuff up. However, given just how uncertain I currently am about what's going to happen more than a few years from now, since there appears likely to be a Singularity in our near future, I consider "all humans who have lived up until this point, or will ever live" as an invalid reference class that is smuggling the results of precognition in to the argument if I try to reason probabilitically over it (without Bayesianliy conditioning that reasoning separately on the different hypotheses that control the size of the reference class — and if I do that, then there's no update to the prior). So I can't use that as a reference class in SSA.
So that's what I think about what Claude tells me Bostrom said: I disagree with both the positions I'm told he outlined as alternatives, but I'm closer to SSA with a causal modification. My position is the one under which the Doomsday Argument and the "no-Doomsday Argument" are both fallacies. Because they both obviously have to be fallacies.
Note that my version of the SSA isn't actually that useful: it's basically a way of doing an internal consistency check on the hypothesis you believe. If you do it and it says "by your hypothesis, a huge coincidence has occurred" that suggests that going and trying to think of a new hypothesis that fits all your observed facts equally well and don't make some aspect of it a huge coincidence might be a good idea. But if, say, 30 bits of coincidence have occurred by your current hypothesis (so a one in a billion fluke), that only supports 30 bits of additional hypothesis complexity that eliminates the coincidence — which isn't that much, a basically few words or a smallish equation. Otherwise Occam's Razor (minimizing Kolmogorov complexity) still wins.
I find that I am still explaining things in painful detail — fundamentally, because I'm not sure what question you’re asking by raising Bostrom.
You said:
Let's suppose we're not dualists. Then, if a million bazillion people exist(/have existed/will exist), and one of them is 'me', and I happen to have a bunch of unusual properties, there's literally no coincidence to be explained: there aren't two separate facts here, 'person X is highly atyptical' and 'I am person X', that are surprising in conjunction. There's just the fact that all of these people exist (or have existed, or will exist), and they're all seeing the world from their own perspectives, and inevitably one of them is seeing the world from person X's perspective, and from that perspective 'I' refers to person X, and (given the existence of all those people, including person X) there's no way things could have been otherwise.
To which I agreed:
You're making the same point that I'm attempting to make in the second paragraph of my footnote: that doing a random drawing over all people ever is an invalid prior (until we’re extinct). As you say, the line of thinking makes no sense in the first place: it's an invalid assumption, because it breaks causality: it's assuming we know what will happen in the future when we actually have no more than a clue.
To put this yet another way:
P(there exists a 100 billionth person born| there will only ever be 101 billion people born) = 1
and
P(there exists a 100 billionth person born| there will eventually be quintillions of people born) = 1
so we can deduce exactly nothing about how many people will be born after us from the simple observation that we were born number 100 billionth (or so) and thus people #1 up to #100,000,000,000 have all existed. Under the quintillions or so hypothesis, it will later in retrospect turn out that all of us born so far were all in some sense very atypical: yes, someone had to be 100 billionth, but that's still vastly closer to the state of the birth order than the end if the end is in the quintillions. But we don't currently know that, and if it later turns out to be the case, so what? Someone had to be 100 billionth, whether that's rather near the end or astoundingly near the beginning, it still occurs with probability 1 under both hypotheses, so there is no Bayesian update between the hypotheses when it happens.
Similarly, if a very shortsighted ant is walking along a ruler, and reaches the 1mm line, that tells it nothing about whether this is a 2mm-long ruler or a 10km-long ruler: it can't see that far, so it has no evidence yet. It only shows it's at least 1mm long, plus the small distance the ant can see (in chronological terms, as far as we can predict with any accuracy). You can't make deductions about how much bigger the size of the reference class might be beyond the number of members you already know about.
I believe I am simply restating your argument here, since I agree with you.
Claude tells me that the essence of what you’ve been trying to ask me is:
I'm noting that "I will turn out to be in the first 10% of people who ever lived" will definitely turn out to be false from the perspective of 90% of people who ever live, and asking why this fact is obviously irrelevant to the credence I should give it.
You're not allowed to use that fact because you don't actually know if you're in the 10% or the 90%. In the absence of that information, you don't get to make a Bayesian update. To do Bayesian arguments correctly, you need to respect causality, and only use information you actually currently have access to.
Claude interpreted your question as base-rate reasoning, though when asked it admitted that you don't use the phrase. I'm going to assume that it was correct. Base rates are normally a valid way to set your Bayesian prior. If you know "the base rate for people having disease X is Y%", then a reasonable initial prior for whether a particular patient has that disease, in the absence of patient-specific evidence, is Y%. But for Doomsday, we have no information of the base rate of species inventing AI and surviving is. We have performed the experiment zero times so far, so we currently have no good way to set a current prior. So any argument that suggests that we do has to be a fallacy.
In particular, using what Bostrom calls the Self-Sampling Assumption using a reference class that we don't know the size of in order to make a deduction about its size is an invalid circular argument: it's assuming you know the answer to the question you're trying to answer, in breach of causality. Yes, there will eventually be a last human alive, or an AI, or an alien archeologist who will know the answer, and will be able to tell, for any individual human, whether the statement "I will turn out to be in the first 10% of people who ever lived" was true or false for them, including for you and I. It's a statement that will eventually have a truth value knowable at reasonable computational cost, but that doesn't yet have one (at a computational cost less than running a quantum simulation of the entire Earth and everything causally connected to it faster than real-time, which as far as we know is physically impossible, and we're certainly not in a position to do). In particular, that's a statement that will turn out to have been true for everybody born until some point in time, and then false for everybody born after that point. So the "base rate" is initially 100%, dropping to 0% at some time that we don't yet know. But since I don't yet know that information, I can't, in Bayesianism, update my priors now based on information that I don't yet have and that will only exist (at less than vastly unreasonable computational cost that I haven't paid) in the future, so I have no way to access yet. Bayesianism is about how to update your priors when you learn new information, and the Doomsday Argument is the Bayesian equivalent of trying to lift yourself up by your own bootstraps in the absence of any new information.
(I remain puzzled why this wasn't obvious to Bostrom, assuming that he's as familiar with Bayesianism as Claude makes it sound like he is. But then I'm puzzled why anyone falls for the Doomsday Argument: as soon as you notice it's breaking causality, it seems obvious to me that it has to be a falacy, and the question then is where the flaw is. The answer is in an invalid choice of reference class. Or maybe I'm just a physicist and have had causal thinking drummed into me — though to be fair I've seen plenty of physicists abuse anthropic reasoning too, sometimes in acausal ways. I even wrote a joke about this.)
Was any of that a successful answer to the question you've been trying to ask me? Because I'm afraid that, even after rereading our conversation carefully, I have to admit I'm still unclear what you're actually asking, or where we actually differ, if anywhere — so much so that I'm resorting to asking an LLM to tell me. Or, if none of that is an answer, then could you please accept my apologies for being confused, assume that I haven't read Bostrom’s book on the subject, that as far as I can tell we agree with each other, that I have now (very belatedly, for which I again apologize) figured out that you are familiar with Bayesianism and that you just don't see something that seems obvious to me about how to correctly apply it as being obvious, but that, if I still haven’t managed to answer your question despite multiple attempts, then I still have no clue what that specific thing is — and try to explain what exactly you are asking me to clarify about my position again, more slowly? It's entirely possible that I'm the ignorant one here: I'm certainly puzzled as to what if anything we disagree about or why.
Alternatively, if you simply want to drop this rather long conversation here, then please feel entirely free. I've already upset you once, and I most certainly don't want to do so again.
I've sometimes joked that the doomsday style arguments are actually arguments about the death of interest in anthropics.
Providing a link to Doomsday Argument and the False Dilemma of Anthropic Reasoning where I solve this anthropic issue. We can collapse all the meta-levels of anthropic reasoning into a simple principle: make sure that the map that you use actually corresponds to the territory.
My actual point (for anyone still wondering whether I have one) is that the correct way for a Bayesian to look at a counterfactual is , which is generally very near 1 — certainly it is for the Hoyle resonance.
You should be careful here as it's very easy to overestimate how much you actually know. Anthropic problems like Sleeping Beauty and Abscent Minded Driver are confusing specifically because of that.
There is also nothing illegal about noticing that P(X) is very low even though you already know that X is realized. If your model claims that some event X is low probable, but you've just observed it being realized, it's very probable that your model is wrong.
In the first scenario, the scientists have an observation that is extremely unlikely under their prior distribution. That's not a problem: observations with 2^-1000 prior probability happen all the time. The task is to find a model that predicts observations well in comparison with its complexity, in some sense.
In a Bayesian sense you can consider a prior distribution over H where P(H) is related to 2^-(complexity of H in bits), and then evaluating P(H | X) = P(X | H) P(H) / P(X).
The scientists don't actually appear to be discussing alternative models at all, just the string theory family, so I'm not sure what they're actually arguing about. Is it just that P(X | H) is very small? Well obviously that is very small. It's always ridiculously small for all H that we know about, and could only be not-small for reasonable complexities of H if the universe was completely deterministic with simple initial conditions.
So the scientific question isn't whether it's small, it's whether there is some alternative H' such that H' is similar in complexity to H and P(X | H') >> P(X | H) no matter how small those are. They don't appear to be discussing such an alternative theory though, so I really don't know what they're actually disagreeing on.
At least in the second case there are two alternative hypotheses, but the "doom soon" one is being privileged. A priori, "soon" is a free variable, and specifying a particular value for the variable incurs extra complexity. This becomes more obvious if you try to objectively describe when "soon" is. What's more, this comes out in the relevant calculations. For example, if you specify "within 100 years after inventing computers" then it is obvious that both hypotheses have essentially the same values for P(X | H).
I think the first scientist was implicitly discussing alternative models of how close two nuclear energy levels might be, at least in our point in the String Theory landscape (presumably at a point before the calculation had actually been done). But yes, overall I completely agree with your analysis: the weight of evidence we have about the prevalence of carbon is far more bits that the a-priori unlikeness of the Hoyle resonance on uniform or any other reasonable initial priors about the energy levels involved.
This assumes that people will stop looking into Doomsday Argument when our civilization stops being young. For example, when we get first million stars colonized, we will stop ask our selves why we are so early. This is reasonable, but here is the problem: the are not just early, we are surprisingly very early.
If we take the whole set of future people who are surprised by their early location (first 100 trillions), we are still surprisingly early in this set. Of course, we can update the whole reference class - we will take not only those who are surprised that they are early, but those who are surprised that they are very early.
But this lowers credibility of the whole argument that - as I understand it - requires to look only on those who are asking the question Q as its reference class.
BTW, I wrote an article Meta-Doomsday argument.
I think you might be taking my attempt at wry humor too seriously. I don't actually agree with Scientist 3: I just think they're marginally less wrong than Scientist 2, who is marginally less wrong than Scientist 1. They’re all Frequentists, and as a result they’re all confused. Scientists 2 and 3 are just each cumulatively conditioning on one more chosen piece of information.
My actual opinion is implied by the line from the joke “…you should include everything you already know about the situation in your priors. That’s kind of obvious, once you stop and think about it.” and is then reprised in the punchline “…the clue they forgot to include in their priors…”— which I then expanded on in the serious footnote to the joke, since I assumed many frequentists would still not get it.
Thanks for the link, I'll go read it.
Questions as reference class is underexposed topic which can be presented as a joke: "Why this table is green?" - "Because if it were red, you would ask: "Why it is red?""
That’s also a good one. Basically the Look-Elsewhere Effect.
Sadly the problem with fallacy humor is that people too stuck in the fallacy rarely get it (and may get upset) — but it can be very helpful to any who do.
That was an interesting read, thanks again: you’ve researched the thinking on this at depth. Seriously, there are hundreds of articles confused by this stuff? Wow, what a waste of intellectual effort…
As you say:
We also show that DA becomes strongest if it is based on the idea of the “natural reference class” of observers, that is, the observers who know about the DA (i.e. a Self-Referenced DA).
So the meta move predates my joke — people have actually had that level of confusion as well: I wasn't the first to invent Scientist 3, they already exist.
At the risk of belaboring what, sadly, seems not to been obvious to many past writers, the “natural reference class” defined above is also an invalid prior. It's extremely easy to construct random distributions over time whose criteria break causality: the concept of a random uniformly-selected second in some predefined range is actually well formed, and so is "whenever this radioactive atom ends up decaying", but the concept of a random uniformly-selected second drawn from all of those seconds in which any variable property X happens to be true breaks causality (unless you do this in retrospect): to determine the correct rate for the earlier seconds you need to have precognition about the state of X at times in in the future. The question you need to ask yourself is: “part way through this period, could I accurately construct the probability distribution up to this point, and tell you how much probability mass is then left over for the future rest of the distribution, without needing any information from the future?” If the answer is ”No” then you're requiring precognition in the assumptions of your argument, and are going to get weird results. To do a worked example, for the radioactive atom: if it has already decayed, then the distribution so far is a Dirac delta function at the instant that it decayed, with 0 probability-mass remaining; otherwise the distribution so far is all 0, with all 1 of the probability-mass left over.
Such as that, on the fairly plausible assumption that the human race will eventually colonize the stars, as long as we manage not to go extinct first, it seems rather likely that that will be something of at least the rather rough order times as many people in our current forward lightcone as in our backward lightcone. That’s a rather large coincidence — why is our current viewpoint that atypical?
I think the most likely solution is that your current viewpoint is actually typical. Most human experience in the universe is being a key figures in the transition to terrestrial superintelligence.
I’m wondering if you read the footnote? My entire point is that the criterion of being a typical human sampled across time inherently and unavoidably requires pregnition (up to the point we become extinct).
So “I am a typical human, of all humans who will ever have lived” is not a valid uniform prior - and I have an enormous amount of evidence that no, I actually live in a specific time and place, a specific number of centuries after the invention of the scientific method, and a specific number of decades after the development of Bayesianusm.
From a Bayesian point of view, drawing a random sample from all humans who have ever or will ever exist is just not a well-defined operation until after humanity is extinct. Trying it before then violates causality: performing it requires reliable access to information about events that have not yet happened. So that’s an invalid choice of prior.
I think this makes too many operations ill-defined, given that probability is an important tool for reasoning about events that have not yet happened. Consider for example, the question "what is the probability that one of my grandchildren, selected uniformly at random, is female, conditional on my having at least one grandchild?". From the perspective of this quote, a random sample from all grandchildren that will ever exist is not a well-defined operation until I and all of my children die. That seems wrong.
In that particular case, you can freely drop the "selected uniformly at random" part – the answer is also the same if we specify the first grandchild, the last, or even the closest-to-middle-in-birth-order. (Note that this would be different if there was, say, a well-documented tendency for fourth-grandchildren to get gender changes to male.) So while you’re technically introducing a need for precognition into the problem by selecting a random grandchild, this particular problem has a property that makes the result not depend upon this precognitive data — the information from the future you introduced has no actual effect, so the answer remains well-defined.
Note that selecting randomly from hypothetical future events predicated on a current model of the future is also fine: the problem happens only when you introduce an actual dependency on unknown and unpredictable future events. Like a dependency on whether we do in fact get to colonize the stars or not that shifts the distribution by a very large factor. For causality to get violated, you need an actual information path from the future into your result.
Fun fact: younger parents tend to produce more males, so the first grand-child is more likely to be male, because its parents are more likely to be younger. Unclear whether the effect is due to birth order, maternal age, paternal age, or some combination. From Wikipedia (via Claude):
These studies suggest that the human sex ratio, both at birth and as a population matures, can vary significantly according to a large number of factors, such as paternal age, maternal age, multiple births, birth order, gestation weeks, race, parent's health history, and parent's psychological stress.
If that's too subtle, we could look at a question like "what is the probability that one of my grandchildren, selected uniformly at random, is a firstborn, conditional on my having at least one grandchild?" where the answer is clearly different if we specify the first grandchild or the last. Or we could ask a question that parallels the Doomsday Argument, while being different: "what is the probability that one of my descendants, selected uniformly at random, is in the earliest 0.1% of all my descendants?"
Anywhere between those two possibilities, we're dealing with uncertainty and incomplete evidence, so we need to use Bayesianism (not precognition).
Suppose we can confidently predict that there will be either O(1) grandchild (because we don't go to the stars), or O(10^6) grandchildren (because we do, and for convenience assume the latter will take a while to all be born, it's not rapid-fire one every few hours), but we don't have any idea of the relative chance of these two plausible outcomes (because we don't know if the stars are owned by Grabby aliens or not). Then at this point we actually have two hypotheses:
a. There will be O(1) grandchild, so the current grandchild is very likely turn out to be the one randomly selected (if we for some reason chose to randomly select one, maybe it was stipulated in a will or something, which we can only legitimately do once they've definitely all been born and we actually know what size of dice to roll)
b. There will be O(10^6) grandchildren, so the current grandchild has around a 0.0001% chance of eventually being the randomly selected one
At this point, one grandchild in, we currently don't have enough evidence to distinguish these two hypotheses (we've seen one grandchild so far, and both hypotheses make the same prediction that seeing at least one grandchild is likely). So our current priors remain unchanged from whatever arbitrary priors we originally started with. If we had, say, picked the uniform prior that both of these hypotheses seem, in the absence of any evidence, about equally likely, then our current estimate of the chance of the first grandchild also being the randomly selected grandchild is ~50% (50% chance of a sure thing because we're not going to the stars plus 50% chance of very unlikely because we are). So, 50%: not particularly implausible. Pretty good currently estimated odds they'll win the dice roll (though obviously it depends mostly on how Grabby those Aliens may be). Nothing clearly implausibly unlikely or atypical has occurred so far. Our best guess is that the current grandchild has a reasonable chance of being pretty typical of all the grandchildren, according to our current understanding of the world. But this still tells us absolutely nothing about the probability of b. being correct: saying "50% is a long way from 0.0001% so we magically know in advance that b. must be wrong so we don't get to go to the stars" is just fallacious. That's not how Bayesianism works. You do the calculation separately under each hypothesis, then you combine the answers weighted according to the currently estimated probability of the corresponding hypothesis being true. It would be equally fallacious to claim that the "the expected number of grandchildren is currently 0.5 x 10^6 + 0.5 x 1 ~= 500,000, so the probability that the current grandchild is going to the randomly selected one only is 0.0002%, so clearly there are almost certainly to be many more grandchildren, so b. must be true" (what one might call the anti-Doomsday Argument, which one hears less often, but makes just as little sense as the original). Either of those are mixing Frequentism and Bayesianism in an invalid way to get a nonsensical answer.
Seriously, just use Bayesianism. You are so much less likely to get confused by weird paradoxes if you know how it works and just use it. It's not that complicated: you can learn it in about a day, it requires only basic arithmetic, and It's simply a mathematical formulation of the intuitions of Scientific Method, which most people learnt in school. This really out to be taught as high school logic, but it isn't.
I was already asking from a Bayesian perspective. I was asking about this quote:
From a Bayesian point of view, drawing a random sample from all humans who have ever or will ever exist is just not a well-defined operation until after humanity is extinct. Trying it before then violates causality: performing it requires reliable access to information about events that have not yet happened. So that’s an invalid choice of prior.
Based on your latest comment, I think you're saying that it's okay to have a Bayesian prediction of possible futures, and to use that to make predictions about the properties of a random sample from all humans who have ever or will ever exist. But then I don't know what you're saying in the quoted sentences.
Edited to add: which is fine, it's not key to your overall argument.
Yes, performing a predicted random sample over predicted future humans according to some model, or Bayesian distribution of models is fine — but in the case of the Bayesian model distribution case, if you have large uncertainty within your hypothesis distribution about how many there will be, that will dominate the results. What breaks causality is attempting to perform an actual random sample over the actual eventual number of future humans before that information is actually available, and then using frequentist typicality arguments based on that hypothetical invalid sampling process to try to smuggle information from the future into updating your hypothesis distribution.
Epistemic status: I just thought this up
There is a well-known style of reasoning called the anthropic argument (which has nothing to do with the AI frontier lab of the same name). It goes something like this:
This is all well and good, and I agree with the second scientist — questions only get asked if there’s someone around to ask them, and you should include everything you already know about the situation in your priors. That’s kind of obvious, once you stop and think about it. And once the String Theory Landscape comes into the discussion, 10>200 is a very large number.
However, if you apply this sort of thinking too much, you find yourself starting to be surprised if your viewpoint is sufficiently atypical in any way, compared to a random sample drawn from all sapient beings, or at least all humans, ever. Such as that, on the fairly plausible assumption that the human race will eventually colonize the stars as long as we manage not to go extinct first, it seems rather likely that that will be something of at least the rather rough order O(10∼10) times as many people in our current forward lightcone as in our backward lightcone. That’s a rather large coincidence — why is our current viewpoint that atypical? Now, obviously, somebody did get to be the very first member of Homo sapiens born, right after we speciated, but that’s just a fluke: they do happen, just very rarely — so I continue to ask, why me? Why am I one of the lucky (or at least early) ones by a factor as large as 1 in O(10∼10)? That simply doesn’t seem very plausible…
I have seen this argument cited as evidence that there must be a Great Filter or that we should all have a high P(DOOM), because it’s just so implausible that our generation could be missing out on going to the stars. That’s a pretty serious case of sour grapes, and interestingly, this argument appears to defy causality. However, I think we also need to consider the Meta-Anthropic Principle:
So the clue they forgot to include in their priors was right there all along, on Scientist 1’s name-tag.
[1]
My actual point (for anyone still wondering whether I have one) is that the correct way for a Bayesian to look at a counterfactual is P(X | everything else I know), which is generally very near 1 — certainly it is for the Hoyle resonance. “There sure does seem to be a lot of carbon around: I’m literally made out of the stuff! I wonder where it all came from?” Once you start doing counterfactuals more rarefied than that, arbitrarily choosing to leave out more information from your conditioning, you’re on increasingly thin epistemic ice, and probably shouldn’t be surprised if you start getting odd-looking results once you leave out almost everything else you know, such as when you are living, or even everything other than the fact that you’re sapient. If one of the enormous number of things that you left out of your conditioning happens to be a relevant apparent fluke (specifically, a relevant way in which you arguably may be atypical across all of time), then you get weird results like the Doomsday Argument. Which one might call the meta-meta-anthropic principle.
From a statistical point of view, any time an argument mixes Bayesian and Frequentist reasoning, as the Doomsday Argument does, you should be deeply suspicious, and attempt to translate it into purely Bayesian reasoning (or I suppose purely Frequentist, if you’re secretly a Frequentist — good luck with that). From a Bayesian point of view, drawing a random sample from all humans who have ever or actually will ever exist is just not a well-defined operation until after humanity is extinct. Trying it before then violates causality: performing it requires reliable access to information about hard-to-predict events that have not yet happened, i.e. precognition. So the concept “I‘m likely to be typical, out of all humans who have existed or ever will exist”, intuitive as it may sound to a Frequentist, is simply an invalid choice of prior — that’s not a uniform prior, it violates causality (unlike “I’m likely to be typical, out of all humans who currently exist”, or “I’m likely to be typical, out of all humans who have existed up to this point” which are both reasonable priors). If you use this invalid prior, it’s not entirely surprising that the resulting invalid argument then predicts the only outcome under which the Frequentist random sampling assumption that it smuggles in in place of a valid prior becomes likely to be valid.
In case you missed it, part of the joke is that Scientists 1, 2, and 3 above are all very evidently Frequentists, and that the Bayesian equivalent of Scientist 1’s observation is: “That’s neat, my previously-uniform prior about the ratio of the value of these two nuclear energy levels value has updated very strongly into being convinced that they’re a close resonance, as soon as I remembered that we’re all literally made out of carbon, and we’re really very sure of that fact. I realized we already had a vast amount of relevant evidence on the subject, which I’d foolishly mistaken for being only of interest to biochemists!” To which Bayesian Scientists 2 and 3 nod in quiet agreement. That’s what the Anthropic Argument looks like in a Bayesian framework.