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Is frequentism compatible with the principle of indifference in any meaningful sense?

by Milton16th Oct 20201 comment

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I'd imagine it is compatible, provided that the outcomes under consideration

a) have happened

b) and have occurred with roughly equally frequency

 

(Btw, it might help to explain your question in the body of the post more, ideally with links, specifically:

principle of indifference

frequentism)