I think if you replace the word "God" with "top" and "perfect" with "highest", it would be much more clear what the proof actually implies about the real world: Very little.
Definition 0: Say that ψ is higher than φ if □ ∀x φ(x) → ψ(x).
Axiom 1: A property higher than a highest property is also highest.
Axiom 2: The negation of a highest property is not highest.
Axiom 3: If a property is highest, then in some world there exists an object with that property.
Definition 1: An object is top if it is every highest property.
Axiom 4: The property "top" is highest. Note: This looks like a a type error to me.
Definition 2: A property φ is highest-generating for an object x if it is true of x, and every highest property of x follows from φ in every possible world.
Definition 3: Superior object. (I changed your name for this as well.) An object x is "superior" if for every highest-generating property of x, every world has an object with that property (not necessarily x).
Axiom 5: A highest property is highest in every world.
Axiom 6: The property "superior" is highest. Probably also a type error.
Sheesh, there sure are a lot of axioms. At this point, I'm not even sure we have a coherent logic sane logic anymore! Especially with those potential type errors.
The end result we prove is that in every world, there exists a top object.
When you divorce the "God" and "perfect" language from the axioms, we don't really get anything that implies much about the real world or Christianity, do we?
It's definitely not a coherent logic as those are defined to be first-order, while this is explicitly a second-order logic.
I didn't know that coherent logic was actually a term logicians used! I'm not a logician myself--I'm a programmer. Thanks for letting me know!
Also, I'll just note for completeness that the justification for the axioms is going to be much more difficult with these "meanings" (or lack thereof). I did try to provide some justification for the axioms. You don't have to agree with all those justifications. I certainly don't, as I mention in the conclusion. But one can still make reasonable arguments here.
Actually it's been formalized, as I mention in the conclusion, so indeed we know that there are no type errors, and that the logic is coherent.
The reason I was saying it looked like a type error was because of the self reference. I'm extremely wary of self-referential definitions because you can quickly run into problems like Russell's paradox. It seems like sometimes it's okay to have self-referential definitions (like the greatest lower bound), but I'm not confident that Axiom 4 actually avoids those problems.
An object is defined to be G if it has every perfect property, and then G is assumed (by axiom) to be a perfect property, hence being G requires being G. Now that I think about it a bit more, though, this seems more like a greatest-lower-bound situation than a Russell's paradox situation.
I don't know how there's any self-reference at all? Having any property X requires having that property X? I mean, you can say a lot of things about Gödel, but the man understood self-reference ;)
If I were to try to translate this into classes instead of properties, it would look like, "The class of perfect properties contains the property of being every perfect property in this class". That seems self-referential to me.
To try to clarify why it felt self-referential. I think there's a self-reference regardless of whether you talk about classes or not, but it's more obvious if you talk about classes.
I think the correct mathematical term is "Impredicativity", not "self-referential", but I'm no logician.
To say that an object y has property X only if the object y has property X is self-referential? I think it's more like a tautology than self-reference.
Ohhhh, after reading the wikipedia article on impredicativity I think I understand the confusion better now! Yes. It is kind of strange, in a way, but it basically collapses to something that's okay. Let's take an example.
Suppose I say that "A bachelor is a married man," this is a fine definition. I could then also say "a man is a bachelor iff he is a married man and he is a bachelor."
This is indeed a super weird way of defining stuff, and you'd never normally do it (unless you have to because of weird second-order logic things, this is what's going on in the proof above). But you can recollapse the definition for bachelor to be about everything that doesn't require you to be a bachelor. So a bachelor is just a married man.
So God is something that has every perfect property except that it doesn't have to have the property of being God to actually Be God. Once it has all the other perfect properties I say that it also has the property of being God, and that itself is also perfect. And it's okay. If you like we could define two properties "Being God 1" and "Being God 2" and then define two properties "perfect 1" and "perfect 2" and separate it all out. But it would be kind of annoying.
EDIT: I'll leave it as an exercise to the reader to separate it all out ;)
Unfortunately, I’m talking about Dana Scott the logician — of Scott’s Trick fame — not the incredibly attractive lawyer from world-renowned TV show Suits.
Dana Scott is famous for many things, but, first of all, for "Scottery", the breathtakingly beautiful theory of domains for denotational semantics, see e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scott_continuity.
:-) And he looked approximately like this when he created that theory: https://logic-forall.blogspot.com/2015/06/advice-on-constructive-modal-logic.html :-)
Now, speaking about what I should do to try to "grok" this proof...
And considering that I don't usually go by "syntax" in formal logic, and that I tend to somewhat distrust purely syntax-based transformations...
For me, the way to try to understand this would be to try to understand what this means in terms of "topological sheaf-based semantics for modal logic" in the style of, let's say, Steve Awodey and Kohei Kishida, https://www.andrew.cmu.edu/user/awodey/preprints/FoS4.phil.pdf 2007 paper (journal publication in 2008: https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/review-of-symbolic-logic/article/abs/topology-and-modality-the-topological-interpretation-of-firstorder-modal-logic/03DE9E8150EE26B26D794B857FF44647).
The informal idea is that a model is a sheaf over topological space X, the "possible worlds" are stalks growing from points x of X, and statement P is necessarily true about the world growing from a base point x if and only if there is an open set U containing x, such that for every point u from U, P is true about the world growing from u.
So the statement is necessarily true about a world if and only if this statement is true about all worlds sufficiently close to the world in question.
This kind of model is a nice mathematical "multiverse", and one can try to ponder what the statement and the steps of the proof mean in that "multiverse".
We'll see if I can follow through and actually understand this proof :-)
I tend to find Kripke semantics easier fwiw. But if you've done a bunch of sheaf theory then this perspective also seems reasonable (though I will say it seems somewhat overkill to me, but what can I say, I'm no sheaf theorist).
Also I somewhat prefer to have the image of Dana Scott from Suits in mind when I think about Scott! It's a lie I tell myself that makes me happy. But thanks for showing the man himself -- a truly brilliant logician!
Yeah, I just have an entirely unreasonable love for continuity :-)
These days, of course, we are not surprised seeing maps from spaces of programs to continuous spaces (with all these Turing complete neural machines around us). But back then what Scott did was a revelation, the “semantic mapping” from lambda terms of lambda calculus to a topological space homeomorphic to the space of its own continuous transformations.
Axiom 3 is wrong. If there are facts about what's possible or not, then these facts must be proved; pleading that "surely it must at least be possible" doesn't cut it. Surely the chicken must at least be white, but he ain't. This flaw has been known for centuries, I tried to write a short explanation sometime ago too.
It's an axiom in a modal logic setup. Axioms can't be "wrong." I could indeed instead have included it as part of the definition of what I mean by a perfect property. Would you then say the definition is "wrong"? It is a definition.
If it is not possible for a property to be instantiated, then you simply say that it is not a perfect property. So even under the charitable reading of "by wrong I mean that there are no properties like this," I still disagree.
EDIT: I actually spoke too quickly here. It might be the case that if you take it as part of the definition, then there are no properties like this. This seems plausible.
If the axiom refers to a notion of "possibility" purely within the misty abstract world of modal logic, then sure, I agree. But then the "God" whose existence is thus proved also resides in that misty world, not in ours. For the proof to pertain to our world, the notion of "possibility" in the axiom must correspond to the notion of possibility that we humans have. And understood that way, the axiom can be wrong, and is wrong.
Ah sure, you disagree that modal logic is an apt way of describing the world. I think that's very plausible indeed! I mention it in the conclusion.
Yeah. Or rather, I guess modal logic can describe the world - but only if you meet its very strict demands. For example, to say something is "possible", one must prove the impossibility of finding a contradiction between the thing and all evidence known so far, to either the speaker or the listener. If that requirement is met, then modal logic will give the right answers, at least until new evidence comes along :-)
I'm not super confident in this conception... I'd have to think about it. If I'm honest your argument doesn't totally convince me (because logically possible worlds do seem like a thing I should be able to talk about). Unless the "evidence" you're talking about is what we know to be logically possible? Anyway, seems like this is probably the crux. Think it is quite reasonable to say modal logic is too strong (especially S5, which is on the stronger end).
I guess this time I spoke too soon! Indeed if we talk about logical possibility, then we "only" need to prove that the imagined world isn't contradictory in itself. Which is also hard, but easier than what I said.
Yeah but who knows if that's really "correct" in that the world-we-actually-exist-in logically behaves like this. Not to mention the precise details of the rules for necessity and possibility. I fear we're in danger of switching positions.
It's nice that we got to the notion of logical possibility though. It's familiar ground to me.
Let's talk for example about mathematical properties of musical intervals. When a major scale C D E F G A B is played on a just-intonation instrument, all pairwise ratios of frequencies are fairly simple: 2/3, 15/16, all that. All except the interval from D to F, which is an uglier 27/32, unpleasant both numerically and to the ear. This raises the tantalizing possibility of a perfect tuning: adjusting the frequencies a little bit so that all pairwise ratios are nice, not all except one. The property of a tuning being perfect can be described mathematically.
Unfortunately, it can also be shown mathematically that a perfect tuning can't exist. What does that mean in light of your Axiom 3? Must there be a "possible world", or "logically possible world", where mathematics is different and a perfect tuning exists? Or is this property unworthy of being called perfect? But what if we weren't as good at math, and hadn't yet proved that perfect tuning is inachievable: would we call the property perfect then? What does your framework say about this example?
(Edit: for what it's worth, my view is that axiom 3 is wrong precisely because of examples such as this. But I might still be missing something.)
Well, I don't want to take too much credit -- it's Gödel's framework, not mine. I guess it would be the case that then it would not be a perfect property, since it is logically impossible to achieve. We just wouldn't know that without doing a bunch of mathematics first, and might be confused to begin with. There's many similar examples in this vein, for sure. But just because you don't know something, doesn't mean it's not true or false. There either is a perfect property, or there is not.
I'm now going to address something that's sort of irrelevant to your main point, but perhaps interesting:
It would seem strange to say that frequencies of music are inherently perfect. This seems to rely on a lot of contingent facts about how human ears work, why we like certain sounds and not other sounds. What is pleasant to us. So I wouldn't call any property like this "perfect" in this sense. But I know it's meant as an illustrative example, so this is not really to your point.
Wait, if we can be confused whether a property is perfect or imperfect - then why do we assert (in axioms 4 and 6) that some specific properties are perfect? What if they're also impossible, like the perfect tuning?
For those ones we just say that they are, since we need those for the argument to hold logically. So we stipulate that for those properties there is no confusion, and they are perfect. You are totally allowed to say "hmm, seems suspicious," but by the definition of these properties, there's nothing contradictory about asserting that these properties are perfect.
But for a property like "is omniscient" or whatever, we could be more unsure. Since maybe "being omniscient" implies you also "know what it's like to kick a baby." And so it implies that you have a property that is not perfect, for example.
In 1970, Gödel — amidst the throes of his worsening hypochondria and paranoia —entrusted to his colleague Dana Scott[1] a 12-line proof that he had kept mostly secret since the early 1940s. He had only ever discussed the proof informally in hushed tones among the corridors of Princeton’s Institute for Advanced Study, and only ever with close friends: Morgenstern, and likely Einstein[2].
This proof purported to demonstrate that there exists an entirely good God. This proof went unpublished for 30 years due to Gödel's fears of being seen as a crank by his mathematical colleagues — a reasonable fear during the anti-metaphysical atmosphere that was pervading mathematics and analytic philosophy at the time, in the wake of the positivists.
Oskar Morgenstern remarked:
Über sein ontologischen Beweis — er hatte das Resultat vor einigen Jahren, ist jetzt zufrieden damit aber zögert mit der Publikation. Es würde ihm zugeschrieben werden daß er wirkl[ich] an Gott glaubt, wo er doch nur eine logische Untersuchung mache (d.h. zeigt, daß ein solcher Beweis mit klassischen Annahmen (Vollkommenheit usw.), entsprechend axiomatisiert, möglich sei)’
Oskar Morgenstern
About his ontological proof — he had the result a few years ago, is now happy with it but hesitates with its publication. It would be ascribed to him that he really believes in God, where rather he is only making a logical investigation (i.e. showing such a proof is possible with classical assumptions (perfection, etc.) appropriately axiomatized.
Oskar Morgenstern, translation (mine)
Gödel ultimately died in 1978, and the proof continued to circulate informally for about a decade. It was not until 1987, when the collected works of Gödel were released, that the proof was published openly. Logicians perked up at this, as when Gödel — who, it’s fair to say, is one of the all-time logic GOATs[3]— says that he has found a logical proof of the existence of God you would do well to consider it seriously indeed.
Godel’s proof takes place in a canonical version of modal logic. This form of modal logic is usually called S5. It contains all the standard rules of propositional logic: modus ponens, conjunction; all of the standard tautologies. As well as four rules for the so-called “modal operators.” The modal operators are represented by a “Box” and a “Diamond”. Whenever you see a box, you should think “it is necessary that…”, or “in all possible worlds” and whenever you see a diamond, you should read “it is possible that…”, or “in at least one possible world.”
Brief justification. This one is pretty easy. It says only that if it is necessary that A is true (i.e. there is no world where A is false), then A must also just actually be true. We won’t really need to use this rule.
Brief justification. This rule states that if it is necessary that “A implies B,” then if it is necessary that A is true, it is also necessary that B is true. You can imagine this as saying the following:
Brief justification. This rule says that if it is possible for A to be true, then it is necessary that A is possibly true. That is, if in some world it is possible for A to have been true (so that A is contingent), then it is also necessary that A could have been true, so that A could have been true in any world.
This is the most contentious rule of S5, but it is equivalent to some other rules that are less contentious — I think it’s not so bad. But you already know the final stop on this train — you may choose to get off here, though I would recommend a later station.
Brief Justification. This rule just states that if a logical statement follows from nothing, i.e. it is a logical tautology, then it is necessarily true in all possible worlds. This makes sense, since we suppose that the rules of logic apply in all possible worlds (the possible worlds we’re considering here are supposed to represent all the logically possible worlds). There is no logically possible world where a tautology is not true, since it is a tautology (a note that this statement is itself basically a tautology).
This rule is usually not stated explicitly as one of the axioms of S5, as it is so widely accepted that all of the modal logics basically take it as given. The modal logics that satisfy this rule are called the normal modal logics.
I will walk through the proof that Scott transcribed[4], which is in the usual logical notation that modern philosophers and mathematicians are familiar with. It is equivalent to Gödel’s original proof, but Gödel wrote his version in traditional logic notation — which is in my opinion much harder to read. The proof takes place in second-order logic, so we will have “properties of properties” (i.e. a property can be “perfect[5]” or a property can be “imperfect”). This is not particularly controversial.
I know it’s starting to look scary — but I promise it’s not as bad as it looks. The P that appears here is one of those “properties of properties” I mentioned just before. It says only that “this property is perfect”.
The sentence above says, therefore, that “If property 1 is perfect, and it it is necessarily true that whenever an object has property 1 it must also have property 2, then property 2 must also be perfect.”
This seems justifiable enough — if property 1 is perfect, and there is no world in which you have property 1 and don’t also have property 2, then property 2 should also be perfect, otherwise how could we have said that property 1 was truly perfect in the first place?
This says that if a property is perfect, then not having that property is not perfect. This just means that it can’t be the case that having a certain property is perfect and also not having that property is perfect. This seems sensible enough — we cannot say it is perfect to be all-knowing and also perfect to not be all-knowing, this would be nonsensical.
Notably, this is not saying that every property is either perfect or not perfect — it is just saying that if a property is perfect, then the negation of that property can’t also be perfect.
This axiom says that if a property is perfect, then it must be possible for there to exist something with that property.
It would seem unreasonable to say that a property is perfect and also that there are no worlds where anything can actually instantiate that property. Surely it must at least be possible for something to have the property if we’re calling it perfect, even if nothing in our world actually has that property. Otherwise we can just resign this property to the collection of neither-perfect-nor-imperfect properties, or else simply call it imperfect, since nothing can ever have it.
This introduces the definition of God that we’ll be working with in this proof. It should be relatively familiar — something has the property of “Being God” if it possesses every perfect property. Also, if something possesses every perfect property, then we can call that thing God. It is a being which possesses every perfect property, what word would you like to use for it?
It does not say that God only possesses perfect properties, God can also possess properties that are neither perfect nor imperfect — however God cannot have any imperfect properties, as that would lead to a contradiction by Axiom 2.
This axiom just says that the property of being God — you know, the property of having every perfect property — is itself perfect.
This seems reasonable, it almost follows from axiom 1, however since there is no one perfect property that implies you are God, God is not perfect as a result of axiom 1, so we need to introduce a special axiom to say that God is perfect.
Again, how would you describe a being that has every perfect property — it seems ridiculous to say that such a being is not itself perfect.
This definition introduces the notion of an “Perfect-Generating” property. This basically says that a perfect-generating property of a thing is a property that captures everything that makes that thing “perfect.”[6]
For example, suppose that the perfect properties of a triangle are things like:
Then the perfect-generating property of a triangle would be the property of “being an equilateral triangle,” as that implies all of the other perfect properties.
To describe the logic of the statement more explicitly, it says:
We say property 1 is a perfect-generating property of X iff X has property 1, and for any other perfect property 2, if X has property 2, then anything else that has property 1 must necessarily (i.e. in all possible worlds) also have property 2.
So it cannot be the case that there is some Y that has the perfect-generating property of X, and yet X has some perfect property that Y does not have. In fact, there is no world where that happens — it is necessary that anything with this perfect-generating property also has all the other perfect properties of anything else with that same perfect-generating property.
Note that this doesn’t mean that the “perfect-generating” property is itself a perfect property (although it will be whenever we use it in the proof).
This is just another definition.
We say that something has the property of “perfect-essential necessity” if (and only if) whenever there is a perfect-generating property for that thing, it implies that there necessarily must exist something (i.e. in every world) which instantiates that perfect-generating property.
This would also mean that there must necessarily exist a thing that has all the perfect properties that follow from that perfect-generating property.
This is just a definition of what it would mean for something to have “perfect-essential necessity.” We have not claimed that any such thing exists, we are just saying that if a thing has a perfect-generating property that must necessarily exist, then it also has the property of “perfect-essential necessity.”
It is just a definition — it cannot hurt you.
This axiom states that whenever we say that property is perfect, it must be perfect in all possible worlds. It must be necessary that the property is perfect.
If there is some world in which a property is not perfect, this axiom claims, then it was never truly perfect to begin with. We are not talking about your “garden-variety” perfection — we’re only talking about the real cream of the crop perfect properties.
This claims that the property of having “perfect-essential necessity” — whereby all your perfect properties must necessarily be instantiated in the world — is itself a perfect property. This seems sensible to me! If it were the case that all of the perfect properties of a thing had to be instantiated in the world, it seems like having that property would also be perfect.
Is it not itself a perfect property for all of your perfect properties to be instantiated in the world? Is it somehow imperfect for all of your perfect properties to be required to exist — well then clearly they were not perfect to begin with!
Well, if you haven’t gotten off the logic-train at any of the steps above, then you know what’s coming now. Let’s show that these axioms entail the existence of God.
This says “it is possible for there to exist an X, such that X is God.”
We prove this using axiom 3, which stated that any perfect property must have the property that it is possible that something instantiates that perfect property.
Then we apply this to axiom 4, which said that “Being God” is a perfect property.
So, just by replacing the φ in axiom 3 with G, it follows that it must be possible for there to exist a God.
This says that “If there is an X with the property of Being God, then Being God is a perfect-generating property of that X,” i.e. it captures all the other perfect properties that such an X would have.”
This is a more involved derivation, so let’s go step by step. What we need to show is that if there is something with the property of “Being God”, then it satisfies the definition of a perfect-generating property. So let’s look at definition 2 more closely.
So we need to show the conjunction on the right holds when φ is replaced with G. It is clear that the first clause of the conjunction holds, i.e. if something has the property of “Being God,” then it has the property of “Being God.” That was easy!
The trickier part is showing the second clause. This says that for any property ψ, if God has that property and that property is positive, then it is necessarily the case that whenever anything has the property of “Being God,” it must also have that positive property ψ.
Let’s begin by again noting the definition of God
And since this is a definition, we can apply the rule of universal generalization from logic[7]. We’ll also drop the reverse implication, since it isn’t necessary for the result.
This is basically just a restatement of our definition. It’s saying for anything which has the property of “Being God,” it also satisfies our definition of “Being God.” We’ve also replaced φ with ψ, just so it eventually lines up with our definition of a perfect-generating property — but we could’ve replaced it with anything.
However, since this is a theorem that we can derive from just our definition of God and the rules of logic alone, we can apply rule 4 from our modal logic system, the necessitation rule. This must apply in any world (since we assume that it is necessarily true that all the laws of logic are true). Therefore, we can just write that the above statement is necessary.
Now we have that in every possible world, “Being God” implies that if a property is positive, you have that property.
From this point on, it’s going to get a little rocky if you aren’t familiar with basic logic. Explaining the rules of basic logic would unfortunately take too long, and this post is long enough already, but feel free to skip to Theorem 3. I promise nothing here is a trick, or at all contentious.
To reach the conclusion for the definition of a perfect-generating property, we can begin by assuming that the ψ we’re working with is perfect. Otherwise there’s nothing we need to show about it (since the first clause of the implication we’re trying to show would be false, so the implication would be vacuously true). So if we assume this, axiom 5 lets us say:
And therefore we can also assume that it is necessary that ψ is a perfect property. Then we can apply a theorem of S5’s modal logic (a basic corollary of proposition 3.17 here, but don’t worry about it too much), to Lemma 1 and get:
Then we can generalize back again, going back to thinking about this being true for anything we include in the formula — since we had a general formula originally in Lemma 1 — which gives us:
Which is the conclusion that we wanted to reach on the right hand side of the definition of a perfect-generating property. So we’ve shown Theorem 2 must hold.
This is the final theorem we’ll need to prove. That it is necessary for there to exist a being with the property of “Being God.”
For this, we’ll need to prove a small lemma, which is:
To prove this lemma, we begin by assuming there exists something that has the property of “Being God;” from this we then want to show the right-hand side, that there must then necessarily exist something with this property. Let’s pick an arbitrary thing that has this property of “Being God” to work with[8], so that we have:
for some a. Then by axiom 6 — that perfect-essential necessity is itself a perfect property, and so it is a property that anything with the property of “Being God” must have, were such a thing to exist — and the definition of God, we have:
Then, by restating theorem 2 for this generic a that we’ve chosen:
Then we use the definition of perfect-essential necessity, and plug in “Being God” as the perfect-generating property (we only need to use the forward implication from the definition):
So, finally, let’s combine our assumption that there exists something with the property of being God, with statements (1), (2), and (3). Then following the chain of implications, we arrive at:
So it is necessary that there exists something with the property of “Being God.” But remember, we have to include the initial assumption we used to prove this, so ultimately all we have shown is:
So the lemma has been proven.
Then we need one last step from our modal logic, we’ll start with theorem 1, which stated:
Then we’ll apply our Lemma 2, to change existence into necessary existence, to get:
So we have that it is possible for it to be necessary for there to exists something that has the property of “Being God.” Then finally, we’ll apply Rule 3[9] from our modal logic to get:
And so it is necessarily true that there exists something with the property of “Being God.” That is, there is something that is “Being God” in every possible world.
Checkmate, atheists.
Well, that was a pretty intense modal-logic session we just went through. I hope that I managed to walk you through it effectively, and perhaps hope that I managed to convince you that there is a God — though I must say, I have my doubts.
Now, I departed from the proof in one place, which was my statement of Axiom 2. Originally, Gödel stated it so that every property is either perfect or it’s negation is perfect, and I have stated it to leave open the possibility that some properties can be neither perfect nor imperfect. This also meant that I had to modify the definition of a perfect-generating property, which can be phrased in a slightly cleaner way if you accept that every property is perfect or imperfect — but I prefer my phrasing[10]. The proof goes through the same way. It is worth noting, though, that in Gödel’s original proof, the bipartite nature of perfect properties (i.e. that every property is perfect or imperfect) ends up leading to something called “modal collapse,” in which everything that is true is also necessarily true — which seems like an unfortunate consequence. I am not certain that my formulation totally avoids modal collapse — though it certainly prevents the most obvious way to get there.
However, I remain uncertain about the existence of God — why is that? After the proof I just gave. Well, it is because I am not sure that any property is perfect, aside from perhaps the property of “Being God”, and the property of “perfect-essential necessity.” I think my arguments for those being perfect properties are good enough, though is it the correct turn-of-phrase to say something has the property of “Being God” if it only has that property, and every other property is simply contingent — I am not so sure. There also remain ontological uncertainties about whether S5 is a legitimate modal logic to consider for our reality. Rule 3 is fairly strong, and I am not sure if I want to accept it, and as you saw in Theorem 3, that was a fairly essential part of the proof — the whole edifice would collapse if we rejected that. But it is implied by some less-controversial axioms, as I mentioned, so perhaps we ought to believe it.
One other comment on the proof — as with so many ontological arguments, we could go through the proof and entirely modify the language, so that instead we are talking about “Perfectly Evil” properties, or indeed any other properties[11]. Perhaps, what this proof has really done is shown us the truth of Manichaeism.
A note that this proof has actually been formalized (in Gödel’s original formulation, not my variant) in a computer-assisted theorem prover! I’m sure the Germans who did that realized the magnitude of the headlines they could generate — “Proof of God Verified by Computers!” Perhaps those of us engaged in similarly wacky disputes could formalize an argument (that works, as all arguments do, only by accepting certain axioms) and then generate a headline that says what you actually believed all along has now been demonstrated beyond any doubt to be certain. This may be a fruitful generalizable PR stratagem.
Unfortunately, I’m talking about Dana Scott the logician — of Scott’s Trick fame — not the incredibly attractive lawyer from world-renowned TV show Suits.
There is no evidence for Gödel sharing it with Einstein, though it is well-known that Gödel and Einstein were incredibly close during their time at Princeton, so it is hard to imagine Gödel never brought it up with Einstein.
I know that means all-time logic greatests of all time, there’s two all-times. I think Gödel probably deserves two all-time awards.
Okay, I’ve made a minor modification to make it more satisfying to me personally. I’ll discuss this in the conclusion.
I will use perfect to mean the classical English definition of perfect, not the technical Leibnizian meaning. The argument feels more justifiable to me in this vocabulary than the standard vocabulary of “positive” or “good.”
This is where I’ve made a slight departure from Gödel’s original proof — I think the proof I’m going to provide here is just a bit more convincing, since otherwise you need to have a biconditional on perfect properties (i.e. every property is perfect or its negation is perfect), and the essential property needs to capture everything about something, not just everything that is perfect about it. There are reasons to prefer Gödel’s original formulation, but I prefer mine (of course). Don’t worry, I’ll talk about the original and my twist on it in the conclusion.
This isn’t quite rule 3, but it’s a corollary of Rule 3. I’ll write a quick proof here. What we want is:
and what we have is:
We get this through a process called “taking the dual.” Begin by replacing p with ~p:
Then contrapose to get:
Then we can use the fact that “it is not possible in any world for not p” is equivalent to “it is necessary that p,”
Then we use the fact that there is an equivalence between “it is not necessary that p” and “in some possible world not p” to get:
Then finally, if it “is not possible that not p” then it must be “necessary that p,” and so we get:
Just by rearranging, we get our result:
This is not a claim to originality, I’m sure some other logicians have arrived at the same conclusion — it is not a particularly difficult adjustment to notice.
Although for certain other properties I think you would need to be more careful about the arguments for axioms surrounding necessary existence.