Explaining Wasserstein distance. I haven't seen the following explanation anywhere, and I think it's better than the rest I've seen.

The Wasserstein distance tells you the minimal cost to "move" one probability distribution into another $ν$ . It has a lot of nice properties.^[1] Here's the chunk of math (don't worry if you don't follow it):

The Wasserstein 1-distance between two probability measures $μ$ and $ν$ is
$W (μ, ν) = inf γ \in Γ (μ, ν) E_{(x, y) \sim γ} [d (x, y)],$
where $Γ (μ, ν)$ is the set of all couplings of $μ$ and $ν$ .

What's a "coupling"? It's a joint probability distribution $γ$ over $(x, y)$ such that its two marginal distributions equal $X$ and $Y$ . However, I like to call these transport plans. Each plan specifies a way to transport a distribution $X$ into another distribution $Y$ :

(EDIT: The $y = x$ line should be flipped.)

Now consider a given point $x$ in $X$ 's support, say the one with the dotted line below it. $x$ 's density must be "reallocated" into $Y$ 's distribution. That reallocation is specified by the conditional distribution $γ (Y ∣ X = x)$ , as shown by the vertical dotted line. Marginalizing over $X$ , $γ$ transports all of $X$ 's density and turns it into $Y$ ! (This is why we required the marginalization.)

Then the Wasserstein 1-distance is simple in this case, where $X, Y$ are distributions on $R^{1}$ . The 1-distance of a plan $γ$ is simply the expected absolute distance from the $y = x$ line!

E_{(x, y) \sim γ} [d (x, y)] = E_{x \sim X} E_{y \sim γ (Y ∣ X = x)} | x - y | .

Then the Wasserstein just finds the infimum over all possible transport plans! Spiritually, the Wasserstein 1-distance^[2] tells you the cost of the most efficient way to take each point in $X$ and redistribute it into $Y$ . Just evaluate each transport plan by looking at the expected deviation from the identity line $y = x$ .

Exercise: For $X, Y$ on $R^{1}$ , where $Y$ is $X$ but translated to the right by $t$ , use this explanation to explain why the 1-distance equals $t$ .

^{^}
The distance is motivated by section 1 of "Optimal Transport and Wasserstein Distance."
^{^}
This explanation works for $p$ -distance for $p \neq 1$ , it just makes the math a little more cluttered.